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Book Reviews

Emotional Storm

Reviewed by

The title refers to psychoanalyst Wilfred Bion’s words: “When two personalities meet, an emotional storm is created.” This goes beyond Freud, whose psychology focused on the intrapsychic rather than the interpersonal. The author, a psychoanalyst and New York University professor, is a well-read and gifted writer who has authored eleven books, including Ecstasy and The Sensitive Self, and written for numerous psychotherapy journals.

His phrasing is memorable: “the tightrope of peace is uneasily strung between tendencies to stifle or explode.” These two poles represent crippled responses to emotional storms. This book helps readers break through deadness without bursting, to broaden and deepen contact and empathy with others. Eigen sees people dodging storms or analyzing them, walking around with emotional umbrellas rather than feeling the rain.

Every new baby rains a mixture of joy and trouble. “There are those who shut a baby up with adoration … Control becomes important as an ordering principle where responsiveness fails.” Eigen zooms in on the swaddled, pacified baby to reveal the storm, the power that upsets, and ultimately rewards real engagement. He shows how compassion can be hijacked by politics or straitjacketed by theological pontification. “The will to power must have its say, not its way. It commands no more than a vote in psychic democracy. It is part of a larger emotional storm that people need to navigate.” He wants people to develop a taste for storms.

Eigen offers case histories and personal revelations, including his own suicidal feelings and fears of failure. He reads widely in religion, poetry, and philosophy. At times, his prose is acute, adamant, aphoristic; at other times it tumbles out obtusely, almost a stream of consciousness. “Impact” works better as a noun than as a verb; he uses it both ways, to its own detriment. He is contagiously exuberant, exasperated, hopeful. He crystallizes brilliant metaphors, like the “binocular psyche.” With two cerebral hemispheres, human beings integrate experiential duality as they do their binocular vision. The author rages against human destructiveness, exalts life and its ethical demands, accepts ambivalence (we love and hate our children), and welcomes the storms of meeting, growing, even dying affirmatively.

A chapter is devoted to the great, puzzling drama of Abraham and Isaac, in which God orders a father to kill his own son. The story moves from ugliness to glory, but Eigen prefers uncertain aliveness to facile faith. His message is timely now when politicians tout a culture of life, emphasizing embryonic and vegetative forms because they are most vulnerable. These kernels of potential or exhausted life, devoid of personality and unable to speak for themselves, evoke storms from outsiders with agendas and creeds to protect and advance. Eigen’s book is for readers who are willing to engage other wills, to storm the ramparts of apathy, prejudice, and self-protection, to come alive in a democratic universe of real personalities.

Disclosure: This article is not an endorsement, but a review. The author of this book provided free copies of the book to have their book reviewed by a professional reviewer. No fee was paid by the author for this review. Foreword Reviews only recommends books that we love. Foreword Magazine, Inc. is disclosing this in accordance with the Federal Trade Commission’s 16 CFR, Part 255.

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Tag Google AdWords til helt nye højder

Downloads: 17

Pages: 127

Published: 9 months ago

Rating: Rated: 0 times Rate It

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Book Description

All of my exclusive tips and tricks from my blog for how to set up and optimize Google AdWords. 125 pages in Danish with everything I've learned in the years I've been working as a specialist in digital marketing.

Anton Hoelstad

Google AdWords specialist and SEO expert

Author's Social Media:   Twitter Account |FB Profile

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Barbara Mable

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L.A.B Rescue and Adoption Network, Danbury, CT and Houston, TX

Customer Service and Project Coordinator– 3/10 – 2/11 (non-profit/all-volunteer)

• Accountable for start-up of New England branch of animal rescue group, assisting TX-based management staff with building team to twenty-five members;

• Coordinated all ground and air transport for over 800+ pets from TX to Northeast ensuring all medical requirements were met with each state’s Department of Agriculture and Transportation;

• Managed media coverage including TV appearances, newspaper interviews and radio podcasts;

• Utilized exemplary writing skills to write biography information on new dogs posted to website, as well as assisted photographer and groomer in presenting shelter animals for...
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Help with Business Finance

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1. Derive the Binomial Pricing model for a leverage firms. Using the Binomial Model that you have derived, find the value of a firm’s levered equity (EL) given the following values: V=600, u=1.4, d=1/u, p=0.6, rf=5%, X=450, and T=3. Interpret your results.

2. Discuss the CAPM and its association with the WACC. Illustrate your answer.

3. The expected returns on the debt and equity of a levered firm are rE=15% and rD=7%, and the current market value of the debt and equity are E=66 and D=44, respectively. What is the firm’s weighted average cost of capital (WACC)? Interpret your result.

4. How could a firm’s ownership structure affect its cost of equity capital? Discuss and support your answer with the appropriate equation.

5. For your retirement fund, you have decided to place 40% of your contributions into a risk free asset that pays 4% interest per annum, and the remaining 60% of your contributions will be placed in an available stock mutual fund that approximates the holdings of the mythical market portfolio. You expect this fund to provide an average return of rP=9%, but will expose you to

risk, measured in terms of an estimated standard deviation of P=20%. What is your estimate of the expected return and standard deviation of your complete portfolio, rC and C, respectively?

Interpret your result.

6. Discuss the CML and SML and their importance for portfolio analysis. Support your answer with relevant research sources.

7. Discuss the importance of separating alpha and beta for portfolio analysis. Use the Sharpe Ratio and Buffet’s alpha to illustrate your answer. Support your discussions with relevant research sources.

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I'm looking for someone that can help with crystal reports

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Hi dumiluchitanca, I noticed your profile and would like to offer you my project. We can discuss any details over chat.

at this point i am setting a 10$ for an hour ( i know you set 5$ an hour:-) and 5 hours for the project of designing 4 different banners for our web site. details on the chat.

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Get Traffic to my Website

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SEO for websites (many contracts for the future) : looking for A LONG-TERM employee

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Build a Website - Shopify Dev

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Need a Consistent Native Writer

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I need a native writer to write 500 and 1000 word articles. (only native writer)

Regular work will be given if the article is to our expectation.

Rate: $[url removed, login to view] for a 500 and $3 for 1000 word article. (Kindly bid only if you agree to the rate)

I will need 3000 - 4000 words written on a daily basis (Monday - Saturday)

Paste a sample content in PM and don't attach any doc(s).

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E-Commerce Product Data Entry

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Seeking freelancer with excellent English skills to assist in handling our workload of publishing products on our website. Need to be able to size images to spec for display on site, and find, edit, and where necessary add to, information on the product, including maintaining correct specification/configuration tags and categories.

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RE: open/close cursor question

  • From: "Christian Antognini" <Christian.Antognini@xxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • To: "Guang Mei" <GMei@xxxxxx>
  • Date: Thu, 17 Mar 2005 18:40:17 +0100

Hi Guang

>1. Why did I see the open_cursor jump from 1 to 3 when I just opened =
>cursor, then to 5 when the second cursor opened?

Because each statement count.
1) PL/SQL block
2) SELECT RID from customers
3) select count(*) from v$open_cursor where sid=3D9

>2. Why did I get the same count before and after close the cursor?

Because Oracle automatically caches SQL statements executed in PL/SQL. =
Read "Usage Notes" under =

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AN SC 200

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The flashcards below were created by user mct on FreezingBlue Flashcards.

  1. Acid Detergent Fibre
    Components of feedstuff not solubilized by an acid detergent (ie, cellulose, lignin)
  2. Acidosis
    Digestive upset caused by an drop in rumen pH
  3. Active Immunity
    Direct exposure to, or vaccination with, infectious agents to elicit an immune response
  4. Acute
    A disease in which symptoms arise quickly and to a severe degree; often not prolonged and ends in death or recovery
  5. Additive
    Substance added to the feed; usually for nutritional or medicinal purposes
  6. Antibody
    Protein produced by the body as part of the specific defence mechanism against/in response to invasion by foreign agents
  7. Adipose Tissue
    Fat cells (containing lipids), which are arranged into lobules
  8. Antidiuretic Hormone
    Secreted by the posterior pituitary; prevents excess whater loss from the body by re-absorbing water from the kidneys
  9. Antigen
    A substance foreign to the body of organism, which elicits an immune reaction upon entering the body
  10. Antitoxin
    Used in combating the toxin produced by bacteria
  11. Apparent Digestibility
    Proportion of nutrient in a feed that is digested and absorbed in the digestive tract, calculated as the amount of nutrient in feed minus the amount of nutrient in feces; apparent digestibility is not corrected for endogenous materials
  12. Apetite
    Desire to consume feed or water
  13. As-fed
    When considering the values of a feed when the inherent water has not been removed
  14. Backgrounding
    Putting calves on pasture before market
  15. Basal metabolism
    Energy expended by an animal which is resting in environmentally comfortable conditions approximately 12 hr after eating (post-absorptive state)
  16. Bioassay
    A test performed to determine the difference of the effect of a drug or substance on a test organism compared to the standard preparation
  17. Burro
  18. Butterfat
    Proportion of fat in milk produced by a dam
  19. Caesarian Section
    Surgical delivery of a calf (rather then vaginally)
  20. Calcitonin
    Released by the thyroid, decreases blood plasma levels of calcuim
  21. Cell-Mediated Immunity
    Reaction of which blood cells and phagocytic celss to the invasio of foreign materials
  22. Caprine
    Pertaining to goats
  23. Chevon
    Goat meet
  24. Chromosome
    DNA molecule
  25. Chronic
    A disease with a long duration which arises slowly; may be somewhat resistant to treatment, and can be somewhat resistance to treatment, and can result in impaired function
  26. Citric Acid Cycle (also TCA cycle of Krebs cycle)
    Metabolic pathway in animal cells through which carbohydrates are oxidized to energy
  27. Coenzyme
    Molecule which is necessary in the activation of an apoenzyme to an enzyme
  28. Concentrate
    Feedstuff high in energy; also low in fibre; eg. grains
  29. Conditioned Reflex
    Developed reflex where something unrelated becomes mentally associated with another thing
  30. Creep-feed
    Providing feed to nursing offspring in order to promote ease in weaning
  31. Crude Fibre
    Insoluble carbohydrates (upon boiling in acid and alkali during proximate analysis) of a feedstuff; poorly digested by animals
  32. Crude Protein
    Protein content of a feed stuff as estimated by multiplying the nitrogen content by a factor (often 6.25) during proximate analysis; the non-protein and true protein components taken together
  33. cwt
    hundred weight (cent in Latin, meaning 100); the unit of weight on which cattle are sold ($/cwt). For example, an 860 pound carcass at a rail price of $150/cwt would be worh 8.6 cwt x $150/cwt = $1290
  34. Dairy Character
    Characteristics unique to dairy breeds which make them suitable for use in the dairy industry
  35. Displacement behaviour
    Usual behavior of an animal which is used at the wrong time or place
  36. Doe
    Female goat
  37. Draft
    Animals (usually horses, cattle, oxen) used in pulling heavy loads or working argicultural land
  38. Drench
    Administratoin of liquid medication orally
  39. Dry Matter
    Proportion of a feed that remains upon removal of water
  40. Endemic
    A human disease particular to a certain geographical area or population; often, it involves low morbidity and persists over a long period of time
  41. Energy Hierarchy
    • Schematic of the energy consumed, produced, and utilized by an animal:
    • Gross Energy (GE): total energyl present in a feed as determined by bomb calorimetry
    • Digestible energy (DE): Gross energy minus the energy of feces
    • Metabolizable energy (ME): Digestable energy minus the energy of urine and gas
    • Net energy (NE): Metabolizable energy minus the heat increment of feeding
    • Net energy of maintance: Energy required to maintain normal body function (homeostasis)
    • Net energy of production: Net energy remaining after maintence has been completed which can go towards production of further substances, such as muscles, milk, eggs, wool or offspring
  42. Gross Energy (GE)
    Total energy present in a feed as determined by bomb calorimetry
  43. Digestible Energy (DE)
    Gross energy minus the energy of feces
  44. Metabolizable energy (ME)
    Digestible energy minus the energy of urine and gas
  45. Net energy (NE)
    Metabolizable energy minus the heat increment of feeding
  46. Net energy of maintance (NEm)
    Energy required to maintain normal body function (homeostasis)
  47. Net energy of production (NEp)
    Net energy remaining after maintance has been completed which can go towards production of further substances, such as muscles, milk, eggs, wool, or offspring
  48. Enzootic
    An animal disease commonly affecting a certain geographic area or population
  49. Epiornitic
    Avian epidemic
  50. Epizootic
    Animal epidemic
  51. Etiology
    Study of factors that contribute to the occurence of a disease
  52. Exogenous
    Produced or caused outside the body
  53. Filly
    Young female horse
  54. Five freedoms
    • Guidelines established in an effort to define the optimal living conditions of animals in captivity
    • Freedom from pain, injury, and disease
    • Freedom from starvation and malnutrition
    • Freedom from fear and distress
    • Freedom from thermal and physical discomfort
    • Freedom to express normal behaviours
  55. Flight zone
    Distance of an object to an animal before the animal will move away
  56. Flushing
    Increased level or quantity of feed 2 to 3 weeks prior to breeding in order to increase fertility
  57. Foal
    Young offspring of a horse (either gender)
  58. Founder
    Overearing of grain or rich grass causing severe hoof inflammation
  59. Functional Food
    A functional food is similar in appearance to, or may be, a conventional food that is consumed as part of a usual diet, and is demonstrated to have physiological benefits and/or reduce the risk of chronic disease beyond basic nutritional functions (ie. they contain bioactive compound)
  60. Gander
    Male goose
  61. Gelding
    Castrated male horse
  62. Goose
    Female goose
  63. Gosling
    Immature goose
  64. Grower
    Ration for young and growing animals
  65. Guinea Hen
    Female guinea fowl
  66. Guinea Rooster
    Male guinea fowl
  67. Habituation
    Animal's progressively decreased reaction in response to a stimulus
  68. Henny
    Infertile offspring of a female donkey and male horse
  69. Hind
    Adult female elk
  70. Homeostasis
    Effect of mechanisms within the body which maintain internal environmental conditions between acceptable standards
  71. Homeorhesis
    Mechanisms which regulated the internal environment of the body during times of physiological change/stress, such as pregnancy or illness
  72. Homeothermic
    Animals which are warm-blooded; can maintain their own body temperature, despite fluctuations in the external environmental temperature
  73. Humoral Immunity
    Production of highly specific antibodies in response to the presence of antigens
  74. Hybrid
    Describing the offspring of two different strains or breeds of animals, in which there are genetic traits present from both of the parents
  75. Hybrid vigour
    Degree to which an offspring with a combination of breed genetics is superior to its non-crossbred parents
  76. Immunoglobulin
    Globular protein in the blood serum which has antibody properties
  77. Inbreeding
    Production of offspring by related parents
  78. Infectious
    Capable of causing an infection in the body
  79. Invasiveness
    Ability of a foreign agent to spread from the original site of infiltration of the body of the organism to the circulatory system
  80. Ionophore
    Molecule which increases the permeability of a cell membrane to an ion; often used as a growth promoting agent
  81. Isomer
    Molecular compound having the same constituents of composition as another, but the constituents are found in another formation
  82. Isotope
    Atoms of which there are more than one variety, in that the atoms have the same number of proton but a varying number of neutrons
  83. Jenny
    Female donkey
  84. Jack
    Male donkey
  85. Keet
    Young guinea fowl
  86. Kid
    Young goat
  87. Lamb
    Young sheep, under 1 year of age
  88. Mare
    Female horse
  89. Metabolite
    Substance produced as a result of metabolism
  90. Morbidity
    Number or proportion of sick animals
  91. Mortality
    Number or proportion of animal deaths
  92. Mule
    Non-fertile offspring of a female horse and a male donkey
  93. Mulesing
    Practice of cutting strips of skin in the proximity of the anus of a sheep, which will deter the growth of wool, preventing manure build-up and the resulting fly attraction
  94. Mutton
    Meat from a sheep that is more than 1 year in age
  95. Neutral Detergent Fibre
    Components of a feedstuff not solubilized by neutral detergent (ie, hemicellulose, cellulose, lignin - mainly constituents of plant cell walls)
  96. Nitrogen-free extract (NFE)
    Result of proximate analysis which indicates the proportion in a feed that is digestible carbohydrates
  97. Nutrient
    Substance which provides nourishment in a feed; carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, vitamins, minerals
  98. Nutraceutical
    A nutraceutical is a product isolated or purified from foods that is generally sold in medicinal forms not usually associated with foods. A nutraceutical is demonstrated to have a physiological benefit or provide protection against chronic disease.
  99. Operant Conditioning
    Learning to complete an action in order to obtain a reward
  100. Outbreeding
    Production of offspring by parents that are not related
  101. Outcrossing
    Production of offspring by parents that are not related but are of the same breed
  102. Ovine
    Pertaining to sheep
  103. Pandemic
    Disease which affects a large number of people within a population or across a large geographical area
  104. Passive Immunity
    `Donation` of temporary immunity from a resistant animal to a susceptible one by the administration of developed antibodies
  105. Pea Chick
    Young peacock
  106. Pea cock
    Male peacock
  107. Pea hen
    Female peacock
  108. Persistency
    Degree to which an animal can maintain a production curve in the decreasing portion (especially egg and milk production)
  109. Pigeon Cock
    Male Pigeon
  110. Pigeon Hen
    Female Pigeon
  111. Poikilothermic
    Pertaining to animals whose body temperature fluctuates, following the pattern of the environmental air temperature
  112. Polled
    Types of cattle that genetically have no horns
  113. Prion
    Infectious agents made of protein, often occuring in the nervous system causing Transmissible Spongioform Encephalopathies (TSE) such as scrapies (sheep) and BSE (cattle)
  114. Proximate Analysis
    Procedures used to determine the proportions of protein, lipid, dry matter, ash, and nitrogen-free extract, from a substance
  115. Pyrimidine
    Single-ringed nucleic acids; cytosine, thymine, and uracil
  116. Purine
    Double-ringed nucleic acids; adenine and guanine
  117. Quiviet (Qiviut)
    Woolly undercoat of a muskox
  118. Radioimmunoassay
    Method of quantifying very small amounts of hormones or drugs by measuring the binding (or inhibition of binding) of an antibody attached to a radiolabelled substance
  119. Ram
    Intact male sheep
  120. Ram Lamb
    Immature male sheep
  121. Resistance
    Ability of an organism to resist infection
  122. Roughage
    Coarse feed, high in fibre
  123. Satiety
    Sensation of not requiring food; being satisfied of food
  124. Scours
    Diarrhea in young animals, cause by bacterial infection, changes to or an inappropriate diet, or environmental factors
  125. Selection Differential
    Difference between animals selected to be parents when pursing the improvement of a certain trait and the rest of the flock/herd
  126. Single Desk Selling System
    Producers sell product to a single organization, rather than having to choose a buyer from a market
  127. Sire
    Parental parental unit
  128. Squab
    Young Pigeon
  129. Stag
    Intact male deer
  130. Stallion/Stud
    Intact male horse
  131. Started
    Ration for very young animals
  132. Steer
    Castrated male bovine
  133. Stereotypy
    Abnormal behavior originating from a frustrated natural behavior

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AN SC 200
2012-02-16 04:14:09
2nd Definitions

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Pharmacology: characteristics of drug classes, Part 1

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  1. Drugs that are used to treat anemia
  2. A condition in which there is a less-than-normal amount of red blood cells and/or a less-than-normal amount of hemoglobin.
  3. What is the general action of the antianemic class of drugs?
    • Darbepoetin and epoetin stimulate production of red blood cells.
    • Nandrolone stimulates the production of erythropoetin.
  4. True or false: Antianemics should be used cautiously in patients with peptic ulcers.
  5. What are the most frequent side effects of the antianemics?
    nausea, vomitting, constipation, diarrhea, abdominal pain, hypertension, hypotension, red urine.
  6. Liquid preparations of _____ may stain teeth: they are diluted in a full glass of water or fruit juice for adults, and a half glass for children. How should they drink the preparation?
    • Antianemics
    • Drink with a straw or place drops at the back of the throat.
  7. Why must the hemoglobin level of patients on antianemics be monitored?
    Hemoglobin levels > 12 g/dL increase the chance of arrhythmias, MI, stroke, and heart failure, as well as seizures, tumor growth, and death.
  8. True or False: Patients on antianemics who begin passing stools that are dark green or black should seek immediate treatment due to a possible life-threatening side effect.
    False. Stools of the patient taking antianemics may be dark green or black, and this is harmless.
  9. Why do antianemics turn urine very yellow or very red?
    • Iron supplements in the antianemics turn urine intensely yellow.
    • Cyancobalamin and hydroxocobalamin will turn urine red.
  10. Why is combination pharmacotherapy often used in the treatment of anemia?
    Because of the infreqency of solitary vitamin deficiencies.
  11. What should be avoided within 1 hour after administration of ferrous salts? Why?
    • Antacids, coffee, tea, dairy products, eggs, whole grain breads
    • Iron absorption is decreased by 33% if iron and calcium are given with meals.
  12. If a patient needs both iron and calcium supplementation, how should the health care provider go about providing these?
    Calcium carbonate does not absorb iron salts if supplements are given between meals.
  13. What types of drugs are considered antianginals?
    • Nitrates
    • Calcium Channel Blockers
    • Beta Blockers
  14. _____ dilate coronary arteries and cause systemic vasodilation. This _____ (increases/decreases) _______ (preload/ afterload).
    • Nitrates
    • decreases preload
  15. _____ dilate coronary arteries, and some also slow heart rate.
    Calcium channel blockers
  16. _____ lower myocardial oxygen consumption via a decrease in heart rate.
    Beta Blockers
  17. True or False: Pharmacotherapy with antianginals may involve combinations of different drugs in order to minimize side effects or adverse reactions.
  18. What antianginals are used to treat and prevent attacks of angina and may be used in the acute treatment of attacks of angina pectoris?
  19. True or False: Only Beta Blockers and Calcium Channel Blockers are effective in treating acute attacks of angina.
    False: Only nitrates are effective in an acute attack.
  20. What antianginals are used prophylactically in the long term management of angina pectoris? How do they work?
    • Calcium Channel Blockers and Beta Blockers
    • They act on blood pressure and heart rate.
  21. What are the common side effects of antianginal drugs?
    • Fatigue
    • Weakness
    • Peripheral Edema
  22. What drinks should patients taking antianginals avoid?
    Excessive amounts of coffee, tea, cola, and large amounts of grapefruit juice.
  23. True or False: If a patient on an antianginal experiences a headache, the dose should be altered.
    False. Headaches are a common side effect and should decrease in frequency with continuation of therapy. Asprin or acetaminophen may be ordered to treat Headaches.
  24. Why should a patient on Antianginals have their intake and output monitored, along with daily weights?
    Necessary in order to assess for evidence of fluid overload, heart failure.
  25. A patient is on antianginal pharmacotherapy for chest pain and experiences trouble breathing, has wheezing, and is dizzy. What should the nurse do?
    Notify health care provider.
  26. What class of drugs is used to treat various forms of anxiety, including GAD?
    Antianxiety agents
  27. True or False: Antianxiety agents are only meant to be used in short term treatment of the condition.
    False: The antianxiety agents include medications intended for both intermittent or short term use and long term use.
  28. True or False: Benzodiazepines have no analgesic properties.
  29. What is the general action of the antianxiety agents?
    Most cause CNS depression
  30. What therapeutic class of drugs are used for a variety of effects having to due with depression of the CNS: including treatment of muscle spasms and procedural sedation?
    Antianxiety agents
  31. What are the most common side effects of the antianxiety agents?
    Drowsiness, dizziness, lethargy, hypotension, sweating, ataxia, paresthesia, incoordination,
  32. True or false: when administering medications that fall into the therapeutic category of "antianxiety agents" via IV, resuscitation equipment should always be available.
  33. What may happen to a patient if you administer antianxiety agents too quickly IV?
    apnea, hypotension, bradycardia, cardiac arrest.
  34. True or False: Antianxiety agents may induce withdrawl effects if discontinued abruptly.
    True. Therefore, when discontinuing the medication, the dose should be tapered to avoid withdrawl reactions.
  35. What functional drug classes are considered antianxiety agents?
    • Antidepressants
    • Antiseizure drugs
    • Benzodiazepines
    • Beta Adrenergic Agonists
    • Nonbarbituate and Nonbenzodiazepine CNS depressants
  36. True or False: Prolonged high dose therapy of antianxiety agents may result in physical or psychological dependance.
  37. This therapeutic class of drugs suppresses cardiac arrythmias.
  38. Arrhythmias arising from the ____ may cause symptoms but are not life threatening. In contrast, arrhythmias arising from the _____ can be fatal.
    • atria
    • ventricle
  39. Folic Acid, Iron salts, and Vitamin B12 are all medications that may be used in the treatment of _____.
  40. What classes of drugs are considered antiarrhymics?
    • Class 1a-c: Sodium Channel Blockers
    • Class 2: Beta Adrenergic Blockers
    • Class 3: Potassium Channel blockers
    • Class 4: Calcium Channel blockers

    • Misc:
    • The Cardiac Glycoside Digoxin
    • Adenosine
  41. What are the PO instructions for administering an Antiarrhythmic?
    1 hr before or 2 hours after meals. Administration with food, especially milk or milk products, reduces absorption by approximately 20%.
  42. True or False: Its best to administer Antiarrhythmics with milk.
    False. Antiarrhytmics should not be taken with milk or food because this reduces their absorption by 20%
  43. What can happen if a patient abruptly stops taking antiarrhymic medication?
    life threatening arrhythmias, hypertension, or MI.
  44. True or false: Grapefruit juice should be avoided by patients on antiarrhythmic medications.
  45. Bluish discoloration of the face, neck and arms is likely to occur with prolonged pharmacotherapy involving ______. What action should the patient take? Is the color permanent?
    • Antiarrhythmics
    • Notify health-care provider
    • No; it is usually reversible and will fade over several months.
  46. True or False: Side effects of antiarrhythmics may occur several days, weeks, or even years after the initiation of therapy and may persist for several months after withdrawl.
  47. What effect do antiarrhymics have on temperature regulation?
    They impair temperature regulation; therefore extremes of heat and cold should be avoided.
  48. What male-specific side effect may warrant a decrease in the dose of antiarrhythmic medication prescribed?
    Epididymitis (pain and swelling in scrotum)
  49. What are the first signs of toxicity in infants and children that are taking antiarrhythmics?
    changes in heart rate: especially bradycardia.
  50. True or False: Patients taking antiarrhythmics should be monitored for signs of ARDS.
  51. How does a health care provider go about choosing an antiarrhythmic agent for a patient?
    The choice depends on etiology of the arrythmia and the individual patient characteristics.
  52. ____ are abnormalities of electrical conduction that may result in alterations in heart rate or cardiac rhythm.
    Arrhythmias (Dysrhythmias)
  53. Diagnosis of _____ is often difficult because patients often must be conncected to an electrocardiograph (ECG) and be experiencing symptoms in order to determine the exact type of ____ disorder.
    • Arrhythmia (Dysrhythmia)
    • rhythm
  54. What are typical symptoms of a cardiac arrhythmia? What are typical patient reports of the way their heart feels?
    • dizziness, weakness, decreased exercise tolerance, shortness of breath, and fainting
    • Patients may report palpitations or a sensation that their heart has skipped a beat.
  55. True or False: Severe arrhythmias may result in sudden death
  56. What is the simplest method for classifying dysrhythmias?
    The type of rhythm abnormality and the location
  57. Arrhythmias that originate in the atria
  58. Name 9 diseases or health associations commonly associated with dysrhythmias.
    • HTN
    • Cardiac Valve Disease (ie mitral stenosis)
    • Coronary Artery Disease
    • Medications such as Digoxin
    • Low potassium levels in the blood
    • MI
    • Stroke
    • Diabetes Mellitus
    • Congestive Heart Failure
  59. There are many types of arrhythmias, but all have in common a defect in what?
    The generation or conduction of electrical impulses across the myocardium. These action potentials carry the signal for cardiac muscle cells to contract and are precisely coordinated for the chambers to beat in a synchronized manner.
  60. What structure is known as the pacemaker of the heart and why?
    The sinoatrial (SA) node. It has a property called automaticity, the ability of certain cells to spontaneously generate an action potential.
  61. The SA node generates a new action potential approximately 75 times per minute under resting conditions, with a normal range of 60 to 100 bears per minute. This is referred to as the normal ___________.
    Sinus Rhythm.
  62. On leaving the SA node, where does the action potential that produces heart beats go?
    The atrioventricular (AV) node
  63. True or False: If the SA node malfunctions, the AV node gan generate action potentials and continue the hearts contraction at a rate of 40 to 60 beats per minute.
  64. Why is impulse conduction through the AV node slow compared with other areas in the heart?
    In order to allow atrial contraction enough time to completely empty blood in the the ventricles, thereby optimizing cardiac output.
  65. How does the heart generate contractions if the SA and AV nodes both fail?
    The AV bundle (bundle of His) and Purkinjie fibers will generate myocardial contractions at about 30 beats per minute.
  66. When areas of the heart other than the SA node begin to generate action potentials, these areas are known as what? Why can they be problematic?
    • ectopic foci or ectopic pacemakers.
    • Their impulses may compete with those from the normal conduction pathway.
  67. Define Tachycardia (Atrial or Ventricular). Which type is more serious?
    • Rapid heartbeat greater than 100 bpm in adults.
    • Ventricular tachycardia is more serious.
  68. Define flutter (Atrial or Ventricular) and the clinical action taken for both types of flutter.
    • Rapid, regular heartbeats; may range between 200-300 bpm.
    • Atrial may require treatment but is not usually fatal.
    • Ventricular requires immediate treatment
  69. What is Heart Block?
    Area of nonconduction in the myocardium; may be partial or complete; classified as first, second, or third degree.
  70. Atrial or Ventricular Fibrillation
    Very rapid, uncoordinated beats; complete disorganization of rhythm resulting in a lack of adequate cardiac contraction; requires immediate treatment.
  71. Premature atrial or premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)?
    An extra beat often originating from a source other than the SA node; not normally serious unless it occurs in high frequency.
  72. Sinus bradycardia
    Slow heartbeat, less than 60 beats per minute; may require a pacemaker.
  73. At what point do patients suffering from dysrythmias need to start pharmacotherapy for the problem?
    Only when the condition cannot be controlled by other means; these drugs can cause serious adverse effects.
  74. The waves of electrical activity across the myocardium can be measured using the _______.
  75. What three distinct waves are produced by a normal EKG? What do they record?
    • the P wave, the QRS complex, and the T wave
    • The electrical activity of the heart:
    • P wave = atrial depolarizaion
    • QRS complex= ventricular repolarization (obscuring atrial depolarization)
    • T wave = ventricular repolarization
  76. True or False: Most antidysrrhythmic drugs act by interfering with myocardial action potentials.
  77. Under resting conditions, what two ions are found in higher concentrations outside of the myocardial cells?
    Na+ and Ca2+
  78. Under resting conditions, what ion is found in higher concentration inside the myocardial cells?
  79. In regards to the heart: On the cellular level, when does an action potential begin? What happens to the charge of the cell? Describe the roles of both Na+ and Ca+
    • An action potential begins when sodium ion channels locted in the plasma membrane open and Na+ rushes into the cell.
    • This produces a rapid depolarization. Ca2+ enters the cell through calcium ion channels during this time, and this is the signal for the release of additional intracellular calcium.
  80. What ion is directly responsible for the contraction of the cardiac muscle? Describe why.
    Ca2+. During depolarization, Ca2+ enters the cell through calcium ion channels and signals a release in intracellular calcium that causes the contraction of the cardiac muscle.
  81. During depolarization, the inside of the plasma membrane temporarily reverses its charge, become _______.
  82. In general, After depolarization, how does a cell return to its polarized state?
    The removal of Na+ from the cells via the sodium pump and the movement of K+ back into the cell through potassium ion channels`
  83. How is the process of depolarization different for the SA and AV nodes of the heart?
    In cells located in the SA and AV nodes, it is the influx of Ca2+ rather than Na+ that generates the rapid depolarization of the membrane.
  84. What is the primary pharmacologic strategy used to prevent or terminate arrhythmias?
    Blocking sodium, potassium or calcium channels.
  85. Explain how class I antidysrhythmics work. (Where in the process of contraction do they act?)
    • Class I: Sodium channel blockers
    • They act to prevent sodium influx to the cell, thus preventing depolarization. The spread of the action potential across the membrane will slow, and areas of ectopic pacemaker activity will be suppressed.
  86. What two classes of antidysrythmics act to prevent muscle contraction after depolarization has already started?
    • Class II: Beta Adrenergic Blockers
    • Class IV: Calcium Channel Blockers
    • Depolarization has already started because these two drugs do not affect sodium influx.
  87. Class III antiarrythmics affect which part of the process of contraction?
    • Class III: Potassium Channel Blockers
    • They delay repolarization of the myocardial cells and lengthen the refractory period, which tends to stabilize dysrhythmias.
  88. Antiarrythmics act by altering specific electrophysiological properties of the heart. They do this by what two basic mechanisms?
    • Blocking flow through ion channels (Conduction)
    • Altering autonomic activity (Automaticity)
  89. True or False: Research studies have shown that the use of antidysrythmic medication for prophylaxis can actually increase patient mortality.

    Explain why this is True or False
    • True
    • There is a narrow margin between a therapeutic effect and a toxic affect with drugs that affect cardiac rhythm. They have the ability not only to correct dysrythmias but also to woesen or even create new ones.
  90. Prodysrythmic effects of Class I antiarrythmics has resulted in increased use of what two classes of drugs? What drug specifically is used most often?
    • Class II (Beta-Adrenergic Blockers) and Class III (Potassium Channel Blockers)
    • Amiodarone (Potassium Channel Blocker)
  91. Why are Class I antiarrythmics divided into 3 subgroups? What does each subgroup signify?
    • They are divided into three subgroups based on subtle differences in their mechanisms of action.
    • Class 1A: Delays repolarizaion, slows conduction velocity, increases duration of action potential
    • Class 1B: Accelerates repolarization, slows conduction velocity, decreases duration of action potential.
    • Class 1C: Slows conduction velocity
  92. Which class of Antiarrythmics are similar in structs and action to local anesthetics?
    • Sodium channel Blockers -- Class I.
    • In fact, lidocaine is a sodium channel blocker that is used as a local anesthetic.
  93. An EKG indicating sodium blocker toxicity would display what?
    Increases in PR and QT intervals and widening of QRS complex.
  94. True or False: No sodium channel blockers have the potential to create new arrythmias or worsen existing ones. That is why they are frequently used.
    • False
    • All the sodium channel blockers can cause new dysrythmias or worsen existing ones. For that reason, they are rarely used.
  95. Class I antiarrythmics tend to have anticholinergic side effects, like what?
    dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention.
  96. ____ are Class II antidysrhythmics and are widely used for other cardiovascular disorders as well , including hypertension, MI, heart failure.
    Beta-Adrenergic Antagonists, aka Beta Blockers
  97. What cardiovascular disorders might beta blockers be used to treat?
    • hypertension
    • MI
    • heart failure
    • dysrythmia
  98. ____ slow the heart rate and and decrease conduction velocity through the AV node. Myocardial automaticity is reduced, and many types of dysrythmias are stabilized.
    Beta Blockers
  99. How do Beta Blockers exert their effects?
    Primarily by blockade of calcium ion channels in the SA and AV nodes, although these drugs also block sodium ion channels in the atria and ventricles
  100. What is the main value of beta blockers as antiarrythmic agents?
    To treat atrial dysrythmias associated with heart failure.
  101. In post-MI patients, ______ decrease the likelihood of sudden death due to their antidysrhythmic effects.
    Beta blockers
  102. Blockade of beta receptors in the heart may cause what adverse effects?
    • Bradycardia
    • Hypotension
    • Dizziness
  103. Abrupt discontinuation of beta blockers can lead to _____ and _______.
    Arrythmias and hypertension
  104. These Class III antidysrhythmic drugs prolong the duration of the action potential and reduce automaticity.
    Potassium Channel blockers.
  105. True or False: Amiodarone can produce pulmonary toxicity in a significant number of patients.
  106. Like the beta blockers, the antidysrhythmic _______ are prescribed for various cardiovascular disorders.
    Calcium Channel Blockers
  107. True or False: A few CCBs (calcium channel blockers) block calcium channels in both the heart and arterioles while the remainder are specific to calcium channels in the vascular smooth muscle.
  108. Calcium channel blockers exert effects on the heart similar to what other antiarrythmic?
    Beta Blockers
  109. Calcium channel blockers are only affective against what kind of dysrhythmia?
    Supraventricular (Atrial) dysrhythmias
  110. Digoxin is primarily used to treat_____ but may be used to treat certain types of ______ arrythmias.
    • heart failure
    • Atrial
  111. How does digoxin exert its effects on arrhythmias?
    Decreases automaticity of the SA node and slows conduction through the AV node.
  112. Digoxin falls into the functional class of _______.
    Cardiac glycosides
  113. Why should patients on digoxin be monitored closely?
    • Excessive levels of digoxin can produce dysrhythmias
    • Interactions with other medications are common
  114. The process of red blood cell formation is called _______.
  115. Hematopoeisis occurs primarily where? What does it require?
    Red bone marrow; B vitamins, Vitamin C, copper and iron
  116. Hematopoeisis is responsive to the demands of the body:
    white blood cells can increase to ____ times normal in response to _____ and red blood cells can increase as much as _____ times normal in response to _______.
    • 10; infection
    • 5; hypoxia
  117. The process of red blood cell formation and hemoglobin production is regulated primarily by the hormone ______. What organ secretes this hormone?
    • Erythropoietin
    • Kidney
  118. Pharmacologically, what are the most important substances controlling leukopoeisis? What do they do?
    • Colony stimulating factors (CSFs)
    • Stimulate the growth and differentiation of one or more types of leukocytes.
  119. What is the goal of pharmacotherapy with colony stimulating factors (CSFs)
    To produce a rapid increase in the number of neutrophils in patients who have suppressed immune systems.
  120. CSF therapy shortens the length of time that patients are susceptible to _____ due to low numbers of neutrophils.
    life-threatening infection
  121. What is the name for the condition of having low numbers of neutrophils? How is this condition treated?
    • Neutropenia
    • With colony-stimulating factors
  122. What application do CSFs have in relation to drug therapy for cancer patients?
    By raising neutrophil counts, CSFs can assist in keeping antineoplastic dosing regiments on schedule (and more effective).
  123. The production of platelets, called _____, begins with what cell in the bone marrow?
    • Thrombocytopoiesis
    • The megakaryocyte, which starts shedding membrane pound packets that enter the blood stream and become platelets.
  124. Megakaryocyte activity is controlled by _____, which is secreted by what organ?
    • Thrombopoietin
    • Liver
  125. What 3 biological conditions cause anemia?
    • Erythrocyte loss due to hemorrhage
    • Increased Erythrocyte destruction
    • Impaired Erythrocyte production
  126. True or False: Only plants can synthesize vitamin B12.
    False: Only bacteria can synthesize vitamin B12.
  127. The most profound consequence of Vitamin B12 deficiency is _____ anemia.
    Pernicious; also called megaloblastic.
  128. What is the most common cause of Vitamin B12 deficiency?
    Absence of intrinsic factor, which is secreted by the stomach and required for Vitamin B12 to be absorbed.
  129. True or False: Vitamin B12 is absorbed in the intestine.
    True. Although intrinsic factor, which is required for the absorption of Vitamin B12, is secreted in the stomach, Vitamin B12 is absorbed in the intestine.
  130. Inflammatory diseases of the stomach or surgical removal of the stomach may result in deficiency of________.
    Intrinsic factor
  131. What is the characteristic appearance of the erythrocytes of a person suffering from pernicious anemia?
    They are abnormally large and they do not fully mature
  132. What drug is used in the pharmacotherapy of pernicious anemia?
    Cyancobalamin, a form of vitamin B12.
  133. What vitamin deficiency is linked to B12 deficiency?
    Folic acid (Folate)
  134. Because free iron is toxic to the body, what protein complexes exist biologically to bind iron?
    • Ferritin
    • Hemosiderin
    • Transferrin
  135. What is the most common nutritional cause of anemia?
    Iron deficiency
  136. More than 50% of patients diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia have _____. This is characteristic of what disease processes?
    • GI bleeding
    • GI malignancies or chronic peptic ulcer disease.
  137. Mild iron deficiency anemia may be corrected how?
    By increasing the intake of iron-rich foods, such as fish, red meat, fortified cereal, and whole grain breads.
  138. What foods are rich in iron?
    • Fish
    • Red meat
    • Fortified Cereal
    • Whole Grain Breads
  139. How is more severe iron deficiency anemia treated?
    • Iron supplements, including:
    • Ferrous sulfate
    • Ferrous gluconate
    • Ferrousd fumarate
  140. Why do many iron supplements contain vitamin C?
    • Iron oxidizes vitamin C
    • Vitamin C is believed to enhance Iron absorption
  141. What drug is commonly prescribed to treat thrombocytopenia?
    oprelvekin (Neumega)
  142. What is oprelvekin (Neumega)? What does it do?
    • Platelet enhancer
    • It enhances platelet production
  143. oprelvekin (Neumega) is functionally equivalent to _____. What does this substance do in the body?
    • interleukin-11
    • It is secreted by monocytes and lymphocytes and signals the cells in the immune system to respond to an infection.
  144. What is the hardest working organ in the body?
    The heart
  145. True or False: Coronary Artery Disease (CAD) is one of the leading causes of mortality in the United States.
  146. The primary defining characteristic of ______ is narrowing or occlusion (obstruction) of a coronary artery.
    Coronary Artery Disease
  147. The narrowing of coronary arteries characteristic of CAD deprives cells of needed oxygen and nutrients, resulting in a condition called ______.
    Myocardial Ischemia
  148. As long as the coronary occlusion or narrowing occurs over time, as much as ______ of more of the coronary artery may be occluded and cause no symptoms. Why?
    • 50%
    • The heard may compensate for its inadequate blood supply
  149. As chronic CAD progresses, the myocardium does not receive enough oxygen to meet the metabolic demands of the heart, and symptoms of __a___ begin to appear. Further more, persistent myocardial ischemia, as has just been described, may lead to __b___.
    • a. Angina
    • b. MI
  150. What is the most common cause of CAD in adults?
    Atherosclerosis: the presence of plaque-- a fatty, fibrous material within the walls of the coronary arteries.
  151. What affect to arterial placques characteristic of Atherosclerosis have on normal vessel elasticity? What can result from this change?
    • Impairs normal vessel elasticity
    • The coronary vessel is unable to dilate properly when the myocardium needs additional blood or oxygen, such as during periods of exercise.
  152. ____ is acute chest pain caused by insufficient oxygen to a portion of the myocardium.
    Angina Pectoris
  153. True or False: Angina Pectoris is more prevalent in those under 55 years of age.
    • False
    • It is more prevalent in those over 55 years of age.
  154. What is the classic presentation of angina pectoris?
    A steady, intense pain in the anterior chest, sometimes accompanied by a crushing or constricting sensation.
  155. True or False: The pain of angina is experienced only in the chest area.
    False: the discomfort may radiate to the left shoulder and proceed down the left arm and it may extend posterior to the thoracic spine or move upward to the jaw. In some patients, the pain is experienced in the abdominal area.
  156. True or False: Woman tend to experience different symptoms from men during Angina Pectoris.
    True: Women may present with gastric distress, nausea, vomitting, a burning sensation in the chest or chest wall, overwhelming fatigue, and sweating.
  157. What precipitates angina pain?
    • Physical exertion or emotional excitement
    • Events associated with increased myocardial oxygen demand.
  158. Angina pectoris episodes are usually of _____ duration. What can help the pain subside?
    • short (5-10 minute)
    • physical rest
    • stress reduction
  159. Angina pain often parallels the symptomology of a _____. Why is it important to be able to differentiate between the two?
    • Myocardial infarction
    • The pharmacologic interventions for the two differ considerably
    • MI is fatal while Angina is not
  160. True or False: Gallstones and biliary diease may present with symptoms mimicking Angina.
    • True.
    • Many diseases can cause chest pain characteristic of angina pectoris. Others include peptic ulcers, GERD, pneumonia and musculoskeletal injuries.
  161. Various drug classes are used to treat angina pectoris, but they may be placed in what two basic, practical categories?
    What general mechanism of action do antianginals assert their effects?
    • Those that terminate an acute angina episode in progress
    • Those that decrease the frequency of angina episodes

    Reducing the myocardial need for oxygen
  162. What are the four ways in which antianginals may reduce myocardial demand for oxygen?
    • Slowing the heart rate
    • Dilating veins so the heart received less blood (reduced preload)
    • Causing the heart to contract with less force (reduced contractility)
    • Lowering blood pressure, thus offering the heart less resistance when ejecting blood from its chambers (reduced afterload)
  163. The pharmacotherapy of angina uses what three classes of drugs?
    • Beta blockers (Beta-adrenergic antagonists)
    • Calcium Channel Blockers
    • Organic Nitrates
  164. What are the drugs of choice for relieving an acute angina episode?
    Rapid-acting organic nitrates
  165. What are the drugs of choice for preventing angina pain?
    Beta blockers, although calcium channel blockers are used when beta blockers are not well tolerated by the patient.
  166. What is the mechanism of nitrates in relation to relieving angina pain?
    • Nitrates dilate the veins, reducing the amount of blood returning to the heart (preload_
    • They also dilate the coronary arteries, bringing more blood to the myocardium.
  167. The primary therapeutic action of the ____ is the ability to relax both arterial and venous smooth muscle.
    Organic nitrates
  168. True or False: Tolerance may develop with short acting nitrates, but is not a problem with long-acting nitrates.
    False: Tolerance is a common and potentially serious problem with the long-acting nitrates, not the short acting nitrates.
  169. In addition to being used for the treatment of angina, long-acting organic nitrates may also be used in the treatment of what disease?
    Heart Failure
  170. How rapidly can tolerance to long-acting nitrates develop?
    As quickly as 24 hours after beginning of pharmacotherapy.
  171. True or False: Tolerance to Nitrates disappears when the medication is withheld.
  172. How do beta blockers help in the treatment of angina?
    They reduce the cardiac workload by slowing the heart rate and reducing contractility.
  173. What antianginals are ideal for patients with both HTN and CAD?
    beta blockers; they have antihypertensive action
  174. True or False: Beta blockers have efficacy equal to organic nitrates when it comes to decreasing the severity and frequency of angina episodes caused by exertion.
  175. How do CCBs (Calcium Channel Blockers) help to relieve angina?
    They relax arteriolar smooth muscle, thus lowing blood pressure and reducing the afterload of the heart. Some also slow the conduction velocity through the heart, decreasing the heart rate and contributing to the reduced cardiac workload.
  176. What is the primary cause of MI?
    Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)
  177. Explain how CAD due to atherosclerosis can cause an MI.
    Pieces of unstable plaque in the arteries can break off and lodge in a small vessel serving a portion of the myocardium. Exposed plaque activates the coagulation cascade, resulting in platelet aggrevation and adherence. A new clot quickly forms on the existing plaque, making obstruction of the vessel imminent.
  178. What are the pharmacologic goals for treating a patient with an MI (5)? What agents are used for each goal?
    • Restore blood supply to damaged myocardium (thrombolytics)
    • Reduce myocardial oxygen demands (nitrates, CCBs, beta blockers)
    • Control or prevent MI associated arrhythmias with beta blockers or other dysrhythmics
    • Reduce post MI mortality with aspirin, beta blockers, and ACE inhibitors
    • Manage severe MI pain and associated anxiety with narcotic analgesis.
  179. Quick restoration of cardiac circulation with _____ medications reduces mortality casued by acute MI.
  180. In the treatment of an acute MI: after the clot is successfully dissolved using ______, what therapy is initiated to prevent the formation of additional clots?
    • Thrombolytics
    • Anticoagulants
  181. Thrombolytics are most effective in the treatment of acute MI when administered in what time frame? At what point do they become ineffective?
    • 20 minutes to 12 hours.
    • After 24 hours.
  182. True or False: Thrombolytics have a wide margin of safety between dissolving clots and producing serious adverse effects.
    False: they have a narrow margin of safety
  183. The primary risk of thrombolytics is what?
    excessive bleeding due to interference with the normal clotting process.
  184. True or False: During the administration of Thrombolytic agents, vital signs must be monitored continuously: any signs of bleeding call for discontinuation of therapy. Stopping the infusion will rapidly terminate adverse effects.
  185. What are the most immediate needs of the MI patient?
    • To ensure the heart continues functioning
    • To ensure permanent damage from the infarction is minimized.
  186. Unless contraindicated, how much aspirin is given as soon as an MI is suspected?
    160 -325 mg
  187. Why is aspirin given to patients experiencing an MI?
    It dramatically reduces the mortality, probably due to its antiplatelet action (helps prevent blood clots).
  188. On diagnosis of MI in the emergency room, patients are immediatly placed on what drug to prevent additional thrombi from forming?
    Heparin (an anticoagulant)
  189. How long is heparin therapy continued for someone who has just had an MI? What medication are they then switched to?
    • 48 hours
    • warfarin (Coumadin) or low molecular weight heparin (Lovenox)
  190. What drug class is administered to the patient suffering from chest pain to assist in differentiating MI and angina? How is this done?
    • Organic nitrates
    • At the initial onset of chest pain, sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to assist in the diagnosis. Three doses may be taken 5 minutes apart. Pain that persists 5 to 10 minutes after initial dose may indicate MI.
  191. True or False: Beta blockers can reduce the mortality associated with MI if taken within 8 hours of the onset of symptoms.
    • True.
    • Beta blockers reduce myocardial oxygen demand, which is crirical for patients experiencing a recent MI.
  192. True or False: Patients who have suffered an MI will likely be on beta blocker therapy for the rest of their lives.
  193. What is the most common type of anxiety?
    Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)
  194. _____ is characterized by intense feelings of immediate apprehension, fearfulness, terror, or impending doom, accompanied by increased autonomic nervous system activity.
    Panic disorder
  195. _____ are fearful feelings attached to situations or objects.
    • Phobias
    • common ones include: snakes, spiders, crowds, and heights
  196. A fear of crowds
    Social anxiety
  197. Recurrent, intrusive thoughts or repetitive behaviors that interfere with normal activities or relationships.
    Obsessive compulsive disorder
  198. A type of situational anxiety that develops in response to re-experiencing a previous life event.
    • PTSD: Post traumatic stress disorder
    • War, physical or sexual abuse, natural disaster, murder
  199. What part of the brain is responsible for both anxiety and wakefulness?
    Reticular formation
  200. When is pharmacotherapy indicated for patients suffering from anxiety?
    When anxiety becomes severe enough to significantly interfere with daily activities of life.
  201. Anxiolytics include drugs from which therapeutic categories (6) ?
    • Antidepressants
    • CNS depressants (sedatives-- higher doses = hypnotics)
    • Drugs for Seizures
    • Emotional and Mood Disorder drugs
    • antihypertensive drugs
    • antidysrhythmics
  202. ____ is a condition characterized by a patient's inability to fall asleep or remain asleep.
  203. CNS depressants are known as ____; at higher doses, they are called _____.
    sedatives; hypnotics
  204. True or False: The term tranquilizer is used to describe a drug with the ability to produce a calming effect at lower doses and the ability to induce sleep at higher doses.
    • False:
    • This described a sedative-hypnotic.
    • Tranquilizer is an older term, sometimes used to describe a drug that produces a calm or tranquil feeling.
  205. Antidepressants are sometimes used to treat anxiety. What pharmacological classes are included in this category of drugs?
    • Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
    • Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)
    • Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs)
    • Atypical Antidepressants (including SNRIs)
  206. What Antidepressants are considered first line in the treatment of depression? What anxiety disorders do they effectively treat?
    • SSRIs
    • OCD and phobias
  207. What antidepressant should be avoided in patients with a history of heart attack, heart block, or arrhythmia?
  208. What antidepressant has common, anticholinergic effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, and urine retention?
  209. What class of antidepressants is the safest? What kind of side effects do they have?
    • SSRIs.
    • Although less common than other classes, they have some sympathomimetic side effects (increased heart rate and HTN) and some anticholinergic effects.
  210. True or False: SSRIs can cause weight gain and sexual dysfunction.
  211. The ____ are drugs of choice for various anxiety disorders and for insomnia.
  212. Why are barbituates rarely prescribed to treat insomnia (4)?
    • Significant adverse effects
    • The availability of more effective medications
    • The risk for physical and psychological dependance is high (schedule II drugs)
    • Withdrawl syndrome is severe and can be fatal
  213. In regards to barbituates:
    low doses do what?
    Moderate doses have what effects?
    Higher doses do what?
    • Low doses: reduce anxiety and cause drowsines
    • Moderate doses: inhibit seizure activity and promote sleep (inhibit brain impulses traveling through limbic and RLS)
    • High doses: induce anesthesia
  214. True or False: Barbiturates stimulate microsomal enzymes in the liver that metabolize medications, thus stimulating their own metabolism as well as other drugs that use these enzymes for their breakdown.
  215. True or False: When taking barbiturates for an extended period of time, cross tolerance to other CNS depressants, such as the opoids, can develop.
  216. What schedule are benzodiazepines in? How do they compare to barbituates in terms of risk for dependance and tolerance?
    • They are schedule IV drugs
    • They are considerably less likely to produce physical dependance and tolerance than barbiturates
  217. How do benzodiazepines act?
    By binding to the GABA receptor chloride channel molecule, thus enhancing the effect of GABA, a naturally inhibitory neurotransmitter found throughout the brain.
  218. True or False: Benzodiazepines can produce life threatening respiratory depression or coma if taken in excessive amounts, and death is likely.
    False: Benzodiazepines do not produce these effects, and death is unlikely inless they are taken in large quanitites in combination with other CNS depressants, OR if patient suffers from sleep apnea.
  219. Although benzodiazepines increase total sleep time, some reduce stage ___ sleep and some effect ___ sleep.
    • IV
    • REM
  220. Aside from the treatment of anxiety and insomnia, what other uses have made benzodiazepines one of the most widely prescribed drug classes?
    • Treatment of alcohol withdrawl symptoms
    • Central muscle relaxation
    • Induction agents in general anesthesia
    • Treatment of Seizure disorders
  221. A hypertensive crisis can result from an interaction between MAOIs and foods containing ______. Why?
    • Tyramine.
    • Tyramine is usually degraded by MAO in the intestines; if a patient takes MAOIs, however, tyramine enters the blood stream in high concentrations and replaces norepinephrine within presynaptic terminals: the result is a sudden release of norepinephrine, which causes acute HTN.
  222. What common foods do patients taking MAOIs need to avoid (10)?Why?
    • Cheese,
    • chocolate
    • beer
    • yogurt
    • bananas
    • soy sauce
    • pepperoni
    • hot dogs
    • raisins
    • avocados.

    All of these foods contain Tyramine

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Pharmacology: characteristics of drug classes, Part 1
2012-05-05 07:08:02
Drug classes

Characteristics of drug classes Antianemics (28) Antianginals (25) Antianxiety agents (14) Antiarrhythmics (26)
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Science Unit 1- Chapter 3

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The flashcards below were created by user TheGraciePena on FreezingBlue Flashcards.

  1. Biodiversity
    Degree of variation of life forms within a given species, ecosystem, biome, or an entire planet.
  2. Protect
    To keep from being damaged, attacked, stolen, or injured.
  3. Biodiversity hotspot
    A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region that is both a significant reservoir of biodiversity and is threatened with destruction
  4. Community
    A group of people with a common characteristic or interest living together within a larger society
  5. Dominant Species
    One of a small number of species which dominate in an ecological community
  6. Keystone Species
     A keystone species is a species that plays a critical role in maintaining the structure of an ecological community and whose impact on the community is greater than would be expected based on its relative abundance or total biomass.
  7. Captive Breeding
    Captive breeding is the process of breeding animals in human controlled environments with restricted settings, such as wildlife reserves, zoos and other conservation facilities.
  8. Ecosystem Engineer
    An ecosystem engineer is any organism that creates or modifies habitats.
  9. Succession
    Ecological succession is the phenomenon or process by which an ecological community undergoes more or less orderly and predictable changes following disturbance or initial colonization of new habitat
  10. Habitat loss
    Habitat loss is linked to the ever-increasing demands for land by the exploding human population and the commercial demands for natural resources.
  11. Deforestation
    Deforestation, clearance or clearing is the removal of a forest or stand of trees where the land is thereafter converted to a non-forest use
  12. Alien Species
     Invasive plant and animal species
  13. Invasive Species
    An invasive species is defined as an organism that is not native and has negative effects on our economy, our environment, or our health.
  14. Overexploitation
    Overexploitation, also called overharvesting, refers to harvesting a renewable resource to the point of diminishing returns
  15. Extinction
    Extinction is the conditioning phenomenon in which a behavior that has been previously reinforced no longer results in the reinforcing consequences and, therefore, the behavior stops occurring in the future
  16. Biodiversity crisis
    Biodiversity Crisis is the number and variety of organisms found within a specified geographic region.The variability among living organisms on the earth, including the variability within and between species and within and between ecosystems
  17. Restoration ecology
    Restoration ecology is the scientific study and practice of renewing and restoring degraded, damaged, or destroyed ecosystems and habitats in the environment by active human intervention and action, within a short time frame.
  18. Reforestation
    Reforestation is the natural or intentional restocking of existing forests and woodlands that have been depleted, usually through deforestation.[
  19. Biocontrol
    Biological control is a method of controlling pests using other living organisms
  20. Bioremediation
     Bioremediation is the use of micro-organism metabolism to remove pollutants.
  21. Bioaugmentation
    Bioaugmentation is the introduction of a group of natural microbial strains or a genetically engineered variant to treat contaminated soil or water.

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Science Unit 1- Chapter 3
2012-10-05 00:28:24
Science Unit Chapter

Science Unit 1- Chapter 2
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