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Transport Manager CPC Exam. Sample Multiple Choice Q&A’s.

Freight Module 2 / Company Law

1. In contract law, the term ‘consideration’ means:
  • a right or benefit accruing to each party from the contract

2. The following statements relating to a public limited company are
  • a plc must have at least 2 directors
  • all plcs must have their accounts externally audited
  • Plcs cannot begin business until a Trading Certificate has been issued
  • a plc must appoint a company secretary

3. A limited company must display the following information on all its business letters:
  • The address of the company’s registered office

4. The following documents must be submitted to the Registrar of Companies when forming a new limited company:
  • A statement of compliance confirming that the requirements of the Companies Act have been met
  • Statement of capital and initial shareholdings
  • Memorandum of association
  • Articles of association

5. When satisfied that the requirements of the Companies Act have been met, the Companies Registrar will issue:
  • a certificate of incorporation

6. The following statements about private limited companies are correct:
  • there must be at least 1 director
  • the trading name must end with the word ‘Limited’
  • the company may not invite the public to buy its ordinary shares or debentures

7. In the event of a members voluntary winding up of a limited company, the directors must file with the Registrar of Companies a declaration of:
  • solvency

8. An operator wishes to dispose of a second-hand vehicle and advertises it in a local newspaper at £8,500 ono. A number of offers are received at varying prices between £8,000 and £8,800. Legally, the operator::
  • can accept or reject any offer

9. For a valid contract to exist, the following must be present:
  • offer
  • acceptance
  • consideration

10. Under the Companies Act, a private limited company:
  • is not permitted to offer either shares or debentures to the public for cash

11. A partnership which is created to give members the benefit of limited liability must be identified by the following abbreviations in its title:
  • LLP

12. The most common remedy for a breach of contract is:
  • damages

13. When creating a limited company a statement confirming that shareholders have limited liability can be found in the company’s:
  • Articles of Association
  • INCORRECT: Memorandum of Association

14. A company’s Articles of Association must contain details of the following:
  • the rules governing the appointment of directors
  • rights of shareholders to attend and speak at general meetings
  • authorised share capital
  • the names of the founding members

15. Every limited company must show on its letterhead
1. VAT registration number
2. UK country of registration
3. Company registration number
4. Address of the registered office
5. List of directors

16. Under company law, a private limited company cannot start a business before which of the following have been achieved?
1. The Registrar of Companies has issued its Certificate of Incorporation
2. Public Liability Insurance cover has been taken out
3. Planning permission has been obtained from the Local Authority
4. A director has been appointed

17. The rights of various classes of shareholders in a limited company must be contained in its
A. Memorandum of Association
B. Certificate of Incorporation
C. Articles of Association
D. Certificate of Trading

18. Which of the following would be an advantage to a road haulier if included in her conditions of carriage?
1. A clause preventing trans-shipment
2. A clause allowing sub contracting
3. A clause making the haulier liable for damage caused by the consignor
4. A clause limiting the haulier’s liability for loss or damage to the goods

19. Mr and Mrs Jones are the only shareholders in Acme Transport Ltd which has a contract to provide transport between Birmingham and London. Mr and Mrs Jones sell their shareholding to Mr and Mrs Green. Insofar as the contract is concerned, Acme Transport Ltd
A. must continue to operate the contract
B. may only continue with the contract if the customer gives written agreement
C. cannot continue to operate the contract
D. may decide whether or not to operate the contract

20. Which of the following statements relating to the law of contract are correct?
1. Exemption clauses can be inserted up to seven days after the contract is made
2. Once made, an offer cannot be withdrawn
3. Acceptance of an offer must be communicated
4. All contracts must be in writing
5. Both parties to a contract must offer some consideration

Freight Module 3 / Industrial Relations

1. Employment Tribunals have the power to hear cases connected with the following workplace issues:
  • employee’s rights to time off work to carry out public duties
  • alleged discrimination on the basis of sexual orientation
  • equal pay complaints
  • PAYE contributions
  • failure to report an accident to HSE

1a. Employment tribunals will hear complaints arising from which of the following employment related issues?
1. Appeals against the issue of improvement notices
2. Discrimination against disabled people
3. Night out allowance tax relief for drivers employed in the industry
4. Equal pay
5. Workers claiming the company’s recognised trade union is not independent
6. Racial discrimination

2. Under the general Working Time Regulations as they apply to non-driving employees of a transport company, the following statements are
  • the working week should not exceed an average of 48 hours over the agreed reference period
  • employees may not work for more than 6 continuous hours before a break is taken
  • that employees are entitled to 13 hours of uninterrupted rest each day (the correct is 11 hours)

3. Jack Smith is 48 and has been employed by the Ace Transport Company for 7½ years. His minimum period of notice from the company is:
  • 7 weeks

4. The following items must be included in the written statement of the terms of employment given to employees:
  • job title
  • starting date
  • pension provisions
  • place of work
  • INCORRECT: detailed job description

5. The following employees would be legally entitled to reasonable time off with pay:
  • trade union shop steward to attend a meeting
  • justice of the peace
  • school governor (this one, I think, is entitled for time off without pay)

5a. A driver is a school governor and has to attend committee meetings from time to time during normal working hours. Under Employment Protection Legislation
  • A. the driver is only entitled to time off to attend if the working hours missed through attending the meeting are made up
  • B. the employer is not obliged to give the driver any time off to attend such meetings
  • C. the driver must be given reasonable time off with pay to attend such meetings
  • D. the driver must be given reasonable time off to attend such meetings (without pay, I think)

6. The following is legally entitled to picket at the premises of an employer other than his own:
  • a trade union official accompanying employees from that workplace
  • any member of the main trade union representing workers at that place of work

7. A man aged 55 with 10 years service is to be made redundant. How many weeks pay will he be entitled to in calculating his redundancy figure:
  • 15 weeks (over 41 years old => 1½ weeks pay for every year of service after the age of 41)

8. An employee who is pregnant is:
  • entitled to reasonable time off with pay to receive ante-natal care, irrespective of length of service

9. A driver has been employed by the Ace Transport company for 15 years. His contract of employment states that all periods of notice will be the minimum laid down by law. The driver wishes to leave to take up another job. How much notice must he give as a minimum?
  • 1 week

10. Jack Smith has worked for Bloggs Limited for ten years. Bloggs Limited is then bought by Lax Logistics plc. With regard to the legal provisions concerning continuous employment, Jack’s service will be calculated from when:
  • He started work for Bloggs Limited.

11. Changes to an employee’s terms and conditions of employment must be confirmed in writing by the employer within a specified time limit of:
  • 1 month

12. For employees to be legally entitled to notice of termination of employment, they must have worked for the employer for a minimum period of:
  • 1 month

13. The following statements relating to Statutory Sick Pay are
  • a person must be ill for a period of at least 4 days to create a Period of Incapacity for Work
  • periods of Incapacity for Work are linked if they are not separated by at least 56 days
  • SSP is not payable for the first 3 working days of a Period of Incapacity for Work
  • SSP is payable for a maximum of 39 consecutive weeks
  • INCORRECT: SSP is payable at the full normal daily rate of pay of the employee

14. The following statements relating to ACAS are
  • ACAS is a statutory body
  • ACAS does not have the power to making legally binding settlements on unions and employers
  • ACAS can fine unions and employers failing to obey an imposed settlement
  • ACAS is the body responsible for ensuring the genuine independence of trade unions

15. A pregnant employee who has been employed by the same company for six months is entitled to:
  • take maternity leave for up to a maximum of 52 weeks
  • share their maternity leave with their partner
  • 30 ‘keeping in touch days’ when adopting shared parental leave
  • maternity pay irrespective of the length of service
  • shared parental leave payable for up to a maximum of 26 weeks

15. An employer wishes to dismiss a number of employees. Which of the following statements relating to statutory periods of notice are correct?
1. One week’s notice is required regardless of the amount of time employed
2. One week’s notice must be given when an employee has worked more than one month but less than one year
3. Four weeks’ notice would have to be given to an employee who has been employed for four years
4. INCORRECT: Fifteen weeks’ notice would have to be given to an employee who has been employed for fifteen years (maximum period of notice is 12 weeks for 12 or more years of service)

16. Which of the following bodies has the right to appoint safety representatives within a company that has a unionised workforce?
A. The employer
B. A recognised trade union
C. A works’ council
D. A works’ consultative committee

17. Which of the following must be paid to HMRC by a self employed worker in the transport industry, earning approximately £30,000 per year?
2. Class 1 National Insurance contributions
3. Class 2 National Insurance contributions
4. Class 4 National Insurance contributions
5. Income tax

Freight Module 4 / Health and Safety

1. An employer is required to draw up a health and safety policy statement if the business has a minimum of how many employees?
  • 5 employees

2. Below are some statements relating to safety representatives and safety committees.
  • an employer must establish a safety committee within 3 months of a legitimate request
  • safety representatives are entitled to inspect the workplace to check for hazards
  • safety representatives are appointed by an employer
  • a safety committee is not required until an employer has at least 50 employees
  • safety representatives must have at least 5 years experience with the employer

3. A Health and Safety Inspector visits your premises where he discovers an activity taking place which, in his view, beaches a statutory provision. He therefore issues an improvement notice. The minimum period allowed to remedy this breach is:
  • 21 days

  • Employees are obliged to take reasonable care of their own safety
  • Employers have a duty of care to protect the health and safety of people living in the vicinity of the workplace.

5. It is recommended that people appointed to be safety representatives should:
  • Have 2 years’ experience with their employer

6. Under current health and safety legislation, statutory safety representatives can be appointed by:
  • A recognised trade union

7. The organisation responsible for the enforcement of workplace safety legislation is:
  • The Health and Safety Executive

8. A transport company employees staff engaged in vehicle maintenance, all of whom work a five day week from Monday to Friday. One of the staff is injured when a vehicle hoist collapses and is absent from work from Monday of Week One until she returns on the Thursday of the next week.
  • details of the accident must be recorded in an accident book
  • the employer should review any risk assessment relating to the use of vehicle hoists
  • the accident must be reported to the HSE by the employee
  • no reporting of the accident is required under RIDDOR
  • if the injury to the employee had been more severe and resulted in death, the directors of the company could be prosecuted individually for corporate manslaughter

9. Under the Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR), employers must keep records of reportable incidents for at least:
  • 3 years

10. An employer may be prosecuted for a breach of Health and Safety at Work legislation:
  • even if no accident has taken place
  • only if an accident has resulted in injury to an employee
  • only if a prohibition notice has been issued prior to an accident occurring
  • only if a serious accident has occurred at the place of work

11. Following an accident involving personal injury on a transport operator’s premises, a Health and Safety Inspector asks to interview the foreman. The employer instructs the foreman to refuse to answer any questions until the insurance assessor has inspected the premises. If the foreman does refuse to answer the inspector’s questions, the following is
  • both the employer and the foreman are liable to prosecution
  • the employer is legally entitled to issue the instruction, so no office has been committed
  • the foreman, but not the employer, is liable to prosecution
  • the employer, but not the foreman, is liable to prosecution

12. A large transport company operates from a number of multi-purpose centres across the North East of England. The following items of information should be contained in the company’s safety policy statement:
  • a statement of the company’s general policy and commitment to safety
  • the names and contact details of managers responsible for health and safety
  • general actions to be taken in the event of an accident
  • details of the fire exits from each building used by the company
  • a statement limiting the liability of the company in cases of injury caused by employee negligence

Freight Module 5 / Financial Management

1. A debenture is a long term debt.

2. The following is a current asset
  • fuel stocks
  • land and buildings
  • fixtures and fittings
  • company vehicles

3. Working capital is calculated by: current assets – current liabilities

4. If increased costs for rent and rates are not passed on to the customer as increased charges, then this will
  • reduce net profit only

5. You wish to forecast the amount of money likely to be received into and paid out of your business. To do this, you will make a
  • cash budget

6. Gross profit = Total sales – Direct expenses

9. Capital employed = Fixed assets + Current assets – Current liabilities

10. Long term sources of financing:
  • revenue reserve
  • sale of shares
  • provision for taxation due
  • land and buildings
  • debtors

11. Lead time should be taken into consideration when deciding when to reorder an essential, fast-moving spare part to avoid a vehicle being off the road.

12. A transport company is considering using a debt factoring organisation for its sales invoices. The following are likely to be benefits accruing from such a change:
  • payment would be received quicker
  • the company’s own credit control staff could be reduced

13. The total liabilities of a company are its:
  • long term and current liabilities

14. You are drawing up a plan of your intended income and expenditure for the next 12 months. This is a
  • budget

15. Which of the following items are shown on a company’s trading account?
A. The company’s gross profit only
B. The company’s net profit before tax only
C. Both the company’s gross and net profits
D. The company’s net profit after tax only

16. A transport company’s Profit and Loss Account records
A. direct costs
B. indirect costs
C. operating costs
D. commercial vehicle running costs

17. To calculate a company’s gross profit, which of the following items of information would be required?
1. The direct costs
2. The total turnover
3. The indirect costs
4. The current assets

Freight Module 6 / Commercial Conduct

1. Your transport company is asked by a customer to provide a price for a large movement of machinery. The document you would use to convey this price and details of any conditions is
  • a quotation

2. A company wishes to settle a number of invoices by paying funds directly into suppliers’ banks. It can do this by means of:
  • credit transfers
  • direct debit

3. The following items of information must always be shown on its sales invoices by a VAT registered transport company:
  • the company’s VAT number
  • the tax point (date)
  • the rate of VAT charged for each item supplied
  • the customer’s VAT number
  • INCORRECT: the address of the company’s head office as registered with Companies House

4. A credit note is used to:
  • correct an overcharge on an invoice
  • correct an undercharge on an invoice

5. If a company’s customers are causing problems by taking too long to pay their bills, what can the company do to encourage quicker payment?
  • offer a cash discount
  • INCORRECT: offer a trade discount

6. Documents in business transactions: estimate, quotation, order, invoice

7. The document which a transport company can issue when it requires payment in advance for a particular job is:
  • pro-forma invoice

8. An order is a communication from a customer asking to be provided with certain goods or services.

9. DR = customer owes operator. credit = give money to customer = reduce customer’s debt,
debit = take money from customer = increase customer’s debt

10. Which of the following terms best describes an approximate costing of a job given to a potential customer by a transport operator?
  • estimate

Freight Module 7 / Marketing

1. You wish to publicise that your company has landed a large new contract for the provision of transport services to a major plc. Which of the following would be the most cost effective ways of communicating this information to your existing clients?
  • press release
  • mail shot to clients
  • local radio advertising
  • advertise in trade press

4. Which one of the following is an example of a non-reactive survey?
  • search of existing secondary data
  • postal questionnaire
  • telephone interview
  • personal interview

5. Which one of the following is an example of secondary data? Data collected from:
  • trade journals
  • market research
  • postal questionnaires
  • personal interviews

6. A freight company analyses the types of customers which have used its vehicles over the past year and finds that they can be placed into certain defined groups. The company, therefore, decides to target its marketing efforts on certain of these groups. This is known as:
  • market segmentation
  • market intelligence
  • market share
  • market research

7. A transport company enters into an agreement to sponsor the shirts of the local professional football team. The transport operator’s name will be displayed on the shirts and in the programmes as the sponsor. This is an example of
  • public relations

8. A transport operator would use which one of the following methods to assess the validity of a new market research survey by testing it on a small sample of customers?
  • pilot study

9. When considering the marketing mix of a marketing programme the ‘7P’s’ refer to which combination of the following elements?
  • people, place, product, process, physical evidence, price and promotion

10. Which of the following is considered to be primary data? Information collected from:
  • questionnaires completed by your clients
  • telephone interviews with potential clients
  • internet searches
  • published government statistics
  • trade directories

Freight Module 9 / Business Taxation

1. Which of the following UK journey would involve a toll payment?
  • Cambridge to Dover via M11, M25, A282 and M2/A2

2. If a transport employer negotiates with her employee drivers and agrees to pay them a nightly subsistence rate in excess of the figure agreed with HM Revenue and Customs:
  • The employees will be taxed on the excess benefit received

3. The standard rate of VAT to be used on invoices by a UK VAT registered transport operator is:
  • 20%

4. VAT related records must be kept for a minimum period specified by law. This minimum period is:
  • 6 years

5. (revenue without VAT – expenses without VAT) * 20%

6. A company is formed in January, begins operations in March and immediately employs 20 workers who receive their first wages at the end of March. PAYE and employees’ National Insurance contributions are deducted by the employer for this first month’s work. What is the latest date by which this money must be remitted to the government?
  • a specified date before the end of April

7. An operator who is not registered for VAT must register:
  • when he realises he will exceed the VAT threshold

8. Below are some statements relating to VAT as it applies to a road haulier using the standard VAT accounting system. Which of the following statements is correct?
  • VAT returns must be completed and sent to HMRC each quarter
  • everything that the haulier purchases will be subject to the standard rate of VAT
  • if more VAT is spent on purchases than the VAT invoiced on sales, no refund may be claimed
  • VAT is a tax levied on the haulier’s profits

9. In Germany, the LKW Maut electronic tolling system is applicable to goods vehicles exceeding a gross weight threshold of
  • 7,500 kg

10. On which of the following pieces of UK road infrastructure are charges made to road haulage vehicles?
  • Mersey Tunnel
  • Tyne Tunnel
  • Humber Bridge
  • Forth Road Bridge
  • Skye Road Bridge

11. A VAT registered UK haulier is asked to deliver a 20 tonne load from a customer in Birmingham to a destination in Norway. Which of the following statements correctly identifies how the haulier should handle the VAT relating to the invoice?
  • do not charge VAT as Norway is a non-EU country
  • charge VAT at the standard Norwegian rate
  • do not charge VAT as all road freight transport movements are zero rated
  • INCORRECT: charge VAT at the standard UK rate

12. Assessment of a company’s corporation tax is based on which of the following?
  • adjusted net profit
  • capital gains
  • fixed assets
  • adjusted gross profit

13. Which European country has an electronic road charging system known as the LKW Maut?
A. Germany
B. Austria
C. Switzerland
D. Italy

14. Which of the following statements relating to Corporation Tax are correct?
1. Corporation Tax is levied on gross profits
2. All partnerships, private limited companies and public limited companies are liable to pay Corporation Tax
3. Corporation Tax is payable to HM Revenue and Customs
4. Any Corporation Tax due must generally be paid within nine months of the end of the business’ financial year

15. The document which a supplier of goods or services sends to a customer, summarising the accumulated amount the customer owes to the supplier at a particular date, is called
A. a statement
B. a quotation
C. a debit note
D. INCORRECT: an invoice

16. Which of the following would be considered to be short term sources of finance for a limited company?
1. Two year bank loan
2. Taxation provision
3. Creditors (these are suppliers, basically)
4. Debtors (are these my customers, who owe me money?)

17. When analysing a balance sheet, which of the following are classed as liquid assets?
1. Cash
2. Debtors
3. Creditors
4. Plant and equipment
5. INCORRECT: Parts stocks (this is inventory)

Freight Module 10 / ‘O’ Licensing

1. An operator applies for a Standard National ‘O’ license for 6 vehicles. The operator must prove that the business has cash or reserves of at least:
  • 7000 + 5 * 3900 = 26,500

2. An operator has an ‘O’ license specifying 5 vehicles with no margin. He is now operating 5 vehicles and wishes to acquire 2 more. He should:
  • apply for a major change to his license
  • surrender his ‘O’ license and apply for a new one
  • do nothing and operate the two extra vehicles until the existing ‘O’ license expires
  • appeal to the Upper Tribunal

3. Your company operates a fleet of 20 vehicles specified on an ‘O’ license and changes its registered head office address. You must inform the Traffic Commissioner of the change within:
  • 28 days

4. Which of the following may object to the granting of an ‘O’ license?
  • British Association of Removers
  • INCORRECT: Chamber of Commerce
  • Confederation of British Industry
  • Upper Tribunal

5. Which of the following criteria must be met by an applicant for a Standard National ‘O’ license which would not have to be met by an applicant for a Restricted ‘O’ license?
  • Good repute
  • Financial reserves of at least £7,000 for the first vehicle and £3,900 for all subsequent vehicles
  • Professionally competent person to oversee and control activities
  • Fitness (convictions for specified offences during the last 5 years, applied to both)
  • Suitable maintenance facilities or arrangements (applied to both)

6. In determining the ‘fitness’ of an applicant for a standard ‘O’ license, the Traffic Commissioner will take into account convictions for specified offences occurring during the preceding:
  • 5 years

7. When a statutory objector makes an objection to an application for an ‘O’ license, a copy of the objection must be sent to:
  • the applicant

8. Representations, on environmental grounds, against the granting of an ‘O’ license can be made by:
  • a person living near the operator’s premises
  • a county council
  • a parish council
  • a planning authority

9. A UK operator has a standard international ‘O’ license. It authorises the operation of 35 vehicles on the road currently plus a margin of a further 5 vehicles. The maximum number of Community License documents that can be issued to the operator is:
  • one original plus 40 certified copies
  • one original document only
  • one original plus 35 certified copies
  • 35 certified copies only

10. A representation, on environmental grounds, against the granting of an ‘O’ license must reach the DVSA Central Licensing Office within:
  • 21 days of the application being advertised in a local newspaper
  • INCORRECT: within 21 days of the publication in “Applications & Decisions

11. An operator has his ‘O’ license revoked by the Traffic Commissioner. To whom can the operator appeal against this decision in the first instance?
  • The Upper Tribunal
  • The Magistrate’s Court
  • The Court of Appeal
  • INCORRECT: The Secretary of State for Transport (appeal to him against refusal to grant a trade licence)

12. A national transport company wishes to transfer a number of vehicles specified on its ‘O’ license in Scotland, to a depot whose vehicles are specified on an ‘O’ license in the Welsh Traffic Area. The vehicles must be deleted from the Scottish license and added to the Welsh license:
  • within 3 months

13. An external transport manager is entitled to act as the professionally competent person for a maximum of:
  • 4 operators operating a total of 50 vehicles

14. Which of the following changes required on an ‘O’ license would oblige the operator to place an advertisement in a local newspaper?
  • to increase the fleet size beyond that authorised in the margin on the existing license
  • to change from a Standard National to a Standard International license
  • when acquiring the operating centre of another operator under the Schedule 4 rules
  • when changing from in-house to contracted-out maintenance
  • when replacing owned vehicles in the fleet with similar vehicles from a leasing company

15. Which of the following items form part of the standard undertakings which a transport company must make when submitting an application for a new Operator Licence?
1. The company will meet the environmental standards ISO 14001
2. The company’s vehicles will operate within the speed limits
3. INCORRECT: Maintenance records will be kept for at least 12 months (Correct is 15 months)
4. The rules concerning drivers’ hours and records will be obeyed
5. There will be a system for reporting and rectifying defects

16. A person makes a representation in respect of an application for an Operator Licence. Identify which of the following statements are true.
1. INCORRECT: A representor may appeal in his own right against the Traffic Commissioner’s decision
2. Representations must be made within 21 days of the application appearing in Applications and Decisions
3. A representor must send a copy of his representations to the applicant
4. A representor must own or occupy property in the vicinity of the proposed operating centre

17. What is the main purpose of an ECMT multilateral haulage permit and for how long is one valid?
A. To permit journeys to EU countries, having a maximum validity of 6 months
B. To permit journeys to EU countries, having a maximum validity of 12 months
C. INCORRECT: To permit journeys to non-EU countries, having a maximum validity of 6 months
D. To permit journeys to non-EU countries, having a maximum validity of 12 months (not 6 months)

Freight Module 11 / Driver’s Hours

1. A driver subject to EU Drivers’ Hours Regulations begins work at 2:00 and completes 2 hours 30 minutes of non-driving work in the depot. At 4:30 he drives to his loading point which is reached at 6:00. He then begins to assist in the unloading of the vehicle. Under the Working Time Regulations the driver must begin a break by no later than:
  • 8:00

2. Bill Bloggs is the driver of a 2 axle rigid vehicle with a gross weight of 18 tonnes. He starts work at 7:00 and commences driving at 7:30. What is the latest time by which he must have stopped for a statutory break if he is operating under EU Regulations?
  • 12:00

3. The maximum fortnightly driving time allowed on EU journeys is:
  • 90 hours

4. Under EU driver’s hours rules, the minimum daily rest for crew members on a double manned vehicle is:
  • 9 hours during a 30 hour period

5. Bill Bloggs is the driver of a 10 tonne two axle vehicle operated by Thames Water in connection with the repair of water mains. In normal circumstances his daily driving period should not exceed:
  • 10 hours

6. Articles 4 and 8 of EU Regulation 561/2006 contain the rules which allow a driver’s daily rest period to be split. Which of the following is a legally acceptable daily rest pattern?
  • 3½ hours + 9 hours

7. A driver working under EU Regulation 561/2006 may reduce his weekly rest period provided that the reduction is compensated. This compensation must be taken en-bloc before the end of:
  • The third week following

8. Under the Road Transport (Working Time) Regulations, the number of hours is an average working week is normally calculated over a reference period of:
  • 17 weeks

9. Under EU Drivers’ Hours Regulations the maximum permitted daily driving time is:
  • 9 hours with the option to extend this to 10 hours twice per week

10. A driver operating under EU Regulation 561/2006 is delayed because of an emergency. This is permissible provided that the driver:
  • Notes the occurrence and the reasons on his tachograph chart or digital tachograph printout

11. Under EU Regulation 561/2006, a driver taking a weekly rest period at base may reduce the rest to a minimum of:
  • 24 hours

12. A transport company uses the standard 17 week reference period for compliance with working time regulations. So far in the period, Amy Smith, one of the company’s drivers, has completed the following working weeks:
Weeks 1 to 6 inclusive – 52 hours each week [312 hours total]
Weeks 7 to 15 inclusive – 46 hours per week [414 hours total, so far the average is (312+414)/15=48.5]
Which of the following would represent a legal pattern of working hours during weeks 16 and 17?
  • 60 hours in Week 16, 30 hours in Week 17 (so that the average is 48 and she doesn’t exceed 60 hours per week)

13. Under Domestic hours of work rules, drivers are exempt from the 11 hour daily duty limit provided that they do not exceed a specified number of hours of driving on each day of the week. This maximum daily driving time should not exceed:
  • 4 hours

14. A driver operating under EU Regulations 561/2006 has completed the following activities so far in the working day:
driving 06:00 – 07:00 (accumulated driving: 1 hour)
break 07:00 – 07:15 (15 minutes)
driving 07:15 – 09:00 (accumulated driving: 2 hours 45 minutes)
other work 09:00 – 10:45 (1 hour 45 minutes)
driving 10:45 – 11:30 (accumulated driving: 4 hours)
break 11:30 – 12:00 (30 minutes)
On recommencing driving what is the maximum driving time permitted before the driver must take a further break:
  • 4½ hours

15. A driver is on an international journey from the Midlands to the Republic of Ireland, using the Liverpool-Dublin ferry. On Day One, the driver makes a number of collections in the UK and arrives at the Liverpool ferry terminal at 13.00. The driver takes 30 minutes to embark the ferry and then commences a daily rest. At 21.00 the driver leaves his cabin to disembark the vehicle. This will take until 21.30. After disembarkation the driver will resume his daily rest in the vehicle. What is the earliest time at which he can recommence driving on Day Two?
A. 01.00 (Need to take 11 hours total daily rest, with interruptions allowed up to 1 hour)
B. 02.00
C. 03.00
D. 03.30

16. Which of the following statements relating to Regulation EC 561/2006 are correct as they apply to a goods vehicle driver on a single-manned journey from Dundee to Southern France, using the Channel Tunnel?
1. After 4½ hours continuous driving, a minimum break of 30 minutes must be taken
2. The driver is permitted to take a daily rest in two separate periods
3. Daily driving periods of 10 hours each could be completed on two days of the week
4. An uninterrupted daily rest period may be reduced to 8 hours provided that compensation is made before the end of the following week

Freight Module 12 / Drivers’ Records

1. Operators must copy data from their drivers’ digital tachograph cards at intervals not exceeding:
  • 28 days

2. Each completed ‘V’ produced by the distance trace on a tachograph chart indicates that the vehicle has travelled:
  • 10 km

3. If the tachograph breaks down on a journey, it must be repaired ‘en route’ if the vehicle is unable to return to its base within:
  • 1 week of the breakdown

4. Digital tachographs must be recalibrated at intervals of not more than:
CORRECT: 2 years
INCORRECT: 6 years

5. Which of the following items of information can be seen on a 24 hour printout from a driver’s digital tachograph card?
  • the cumulative amount of “other work” undertaken
  • the opening odometer reading
  • the manufacturer of the tachograph unit
  • the expiry date of the driver’s card
  • the driver’s date of birth

6. Under EU Regulation 3821/85 operators are legally obliged to retain completed tachograph charts for at least:
  • 12 months

7. Which of the following pieces of information must be entered by the driver on the tachograph chart each day?
  • The place at which the day’s work begins
  • The registration number of the vehicle
  • The place at which the day’s work ends
  • The name and address of the employer
  • The length of rest taken prior to starting the day’s work

8. A company card to be used in connection with digital tachographs has a maximum validity of:
  • 5 years

9. Drivers working under UK ‘Domestic’ regulations must complete which of the following tasks, with regard to their hours of work records?
  • Submit the entire record book to the employer for checking
  • INCORRECT: Remove the top copy of the weekly record sheet from the record book and submit it to the employer for checking

10. In respect of digital tachographs, a company card, when inserted into a vehicle unit, can:
  • Enable data to be “locked in” and “locked out”
  • Store information downloaded from the vehicle unit
  • Analyse downloaded information
  • Store information copied from driver’s cards

11. Which one of the following has the legal authority to inspect a road haulage driver’s hours of work records:
  • A DVSA examiner
  • A traffic warden
  • A public health and safety inspector
  • A trading standards officer

12. A driver drives a vehicle subject to the EU driver’s hours rules on Wednesday and Thursday. He works in the warehouse on Monday, Tuesday and Friday. In respect of the records he is required to keep under the provisions of the EU rules, which of the following statements relating to his non-driving days is correct?
  • He must keep manual records of his work on Monday, Tuesday and Friday
  • He must keep manual records of his work on Friday only
  • He is not required to keep records of hi work on Monday, Tuesday and Friday
  • He must carry a timesheet covering Monday, Tuesday and Friday

13. When asked by an enforcement official, drivers must be able to produce tachographs records for the current day and how many preceding days?
  • 28

14. Which of the following statements relating to digital tachographs are correct?
  • All recordings are made in UTC (Universal Time Co-ordinated) time
  • The maximum validity of a driver’s card is 5 years
  • All cards are issued by the Driver and Vehicle Standards Agency
  • Operators must keep data downloaded from the vehicle unit for at least 2 years
  • When the vehicle is stationary, the driver’s activity will be automatically recorded as a period of availability

15. In respect of digital tachographs, for which of the following purposes can company digital cards be used?
A. Calibrating the instrument
B. Storing information downloaded from vehicle units
C. ‘Locking in’ and ‘locking out’ data stored in the vehicle unit
D. Analysing downloaded information

16. Under the provisions of the Road Transport (Working Time) Regulations 2005, which of the following limits applies?
1. 65 hours’ working time in any one week
2. 48 hours’ working time per week averaged over the reference period
3. No more than 6 hours’ work without a break
4. No more than 4.5 hours’ work without a break
5. 60 hours’ working time in any one week

Freight Module 13 / Preventive Maintenance

1. Under UK law, operators must keep copies of all maintenance records relating to ‘O’ licensed vehicles for a minimum period of:
  • 15 months

2. Which of the following conditions relating to the tyres on a 40,000 kg GVW articulated vehicle would breach Construction and Use Regulations?
  • Under inflated by 40%
  • A radial tyre and a cross ply tyre on the same axle
  • A bulge in the sidewall
  • Tread depth of 1.4 mm over three quarters of the tread breadth
  • A cut in the tread, not deep enough to reach the body cords, of 30 mm

3. Vehicles above a prescribed gross weight threshold must be fitted with a mirror giving the driver a view across the front of the vehicle. This threshold for fitment is:
  • 7.5 tonnes

4. Listed below are a number of items of workshop equipment. Which of these are specifically recommended in the Guide to Maintaining Roadworthiness as important when creating an in-house maintenance facility?
  • Exhaust gas emission test equipment
  • Headlamp adjustment test equipment
  • Brake test equipment
  • Steam pressure washer
  • Torque wrench

5. The Guide to Maintaining Roadworthiness recommends that plans for preventive maintenance inspections and routine servicing on authorised vehicles should cover at least the next:
  • 6 months

6. A company has 20 vehicles in its ‘O’ license fleet. The vehicles are leased, without drivers, from a truck rental and finance company. The truck rental company also provide all maintenance services to the operator for the vehicles. One of the company’s drivers is stopped by DVSA and, on examination of the vehicle, significant defects are found. Under current traffic laws which of the following could be prosecuted in relation to the offence?
  • The operator and the driver only
  • The operator only
  • The operator and the maintenance provider only
  • The operator, the maintenance provider and the driver

Freight Module 14 / Vehicle Costing

1. An operator buys a new tractor unit for £90,000. The value of the original tyre equipment is £2,500, the vehicle has an expected life of 5 years and an estimated residual value of £22,500. If the If the reducing balance method of depreciation is used at a rate of 20%, the amount allocated for depreciation in the first year of the vehicle’s life will be:
  • 90,000 – 2,500 = 87,500 then take 20% of 87,500 = 17,500. Reducing method does not need residual value.

2. A tractor unit is equipped with 6 tyres, each costing £300. The semi-trailer it tows also has 6 tyres, this time costing £340 each. All of the tyres on both the unit and semi-trailer are estimated to have a life of 80,000 km. What is the running cost of tyres for the whole vehicle in pence per kilometers?
  • 6 x 300 + 6 x 340 = 3,840 now divide that by 80,000 = £0.048 per km = 4.8p per km

3. Which of the following vehicle costs are both direct and fixed?
  • VED
  • Insurance
  • Lubricants
  • Tyres
  • Maintenance

4. An operator has annual standing costs of £60,000, running costs of 40 pence per kilometre and a profit mark up on costs of 20%. A customer has asked the operator to quote an “all in” price per kilometre, based on providing traction-only haulage for the customer’s trailers and covering 50,000 kilometres per year What price per kilometre should the operator quote?
  • 60,000 + 0.4 * 50,000 = 80,000 now add 20% mark up = 96,000 now divide by 50,000 = £1.92 per km

5. An operator has a fleet comprising two vehicles with a carrying capacity of 25 tonnes each and 7 vehicles with a capacity of 10 tonnes each. If the total overheads of the business are £90,000, how much of this amount would be borne by a 10 tonne vehicle, using overhead allocation based on carrying capacity?
  • 2 * 25 = 50; 7 * 10 = 70; 50+70=120; 90,000/120=750; 750*10=7500

6. Over a period, an operator’s 18 tonne GVW rigids incur costs of £60,000 for fuel, £1000 for lubricants, £12,000 for maintenance and £3,000 for tyres. During the same period, the 18 tonne vehicles cover 200,000 kilometres. Calculate the running costs in pence per km.
  • 60K + 1K + 12K + 3K = 76,000; 76,000 / 200,000 = £0.38 = 38p per km

7. An international operator finds itself spending a considerable amount of money each month on fuel, tolls etc which are payable in euros. Last year the operator used a conversion rate of €1 = £0.95. However, the exchange rate has changed and is now €1 = £0.85. If the operator spent €250,000 abroad last year and anticipates the same expenditure this year, what will be the effect when the new exchange conversion rate is taken into account?
  • Last year: €250,000 * 0.95 = 237,500; This year: €250,000 * 0.85 = 212,500; => 25,000 less

8. A new vehicle costs an operator £100,000. Which of the following additional pieces of information will the operator need in order to calculate the first year’s depreciation using the reducing balance method?
  • The percentage rate to be applied
  • The value of the original tyre equipment supplied with the new vehicle
  • The estimated life of the vehicle
  • The residual value at the projected time of disposal

9. A transport company has a total capital employed of €500,000 and wishes to make a profit of 20% on this amount. If the annual costs of the business are €800,000, what percentage profit mark up needs to be added to any costs calculation for customers?
  • 500,000 * 20% = 100,000; 100,000 / 800,000 = 0.125 = 12.5%

10. An operator purchases a new vehicle for £52,000 and the original tyre equipment fitted to it is valued at £4,000. If the operator estimates that the vehicle will have a resale value of £6,000 when he disposes of it in 5 years time, what is the annual depreciation which must be allowed using the straight lien method?
  • 52,000 – 4,000 = 48,000; 48,000 – 6,000 = 42,000; 42,000 / 5 = 8,400 per year

Freight Module 15 / Vehicle Taxation

1. Which of the following factors are taken into consideration when calculating the VED payable on a 44 tonne gvw rigid vehicle/drawbar trailer combination
  • Gross weight of rigid vehicle
  • Gross weight of drawbar trailer
  • Number of axels
  • Annual kilometres travelled by the vehicle
  • Unladen weight of drawbar trailer

2. The minimum period for which a trade license may be taken out is:
  • 6 months

3. An application for a new trade licence should be made to:
  • DVLA Swansea

4. Which of the following statements relating to vehicle excise duty are correct?
  • VED is non-transferable
  • Refunds for unexpired portions of VED are paid automatically to the seller of the vehicle
  • A paper tax discs must always be displayed on the nearside of the vehicle
  • INCORRECT: All administration relating to VED is undertaken by the Driver and Vehicle Standards Agency

5. Appeals against the refusal to grant a trade licence must be made to the:
  • Secretary of State for Transport
  • INCORRECT: Upper Tribunal (appeal to Upper Tribunal against revocation of the O licence)
  • DVSA Central Licensing Office, Leeds
  • Local Magistrates’ Court

6. A transport company has a specialised recovery vehicle which it uses to attend breakdowns and where necessary, tow vehicles back to the operating centre for repair. Often the vehicles being towed are fully loaded 40 tonne gvw artics. What vehicle excise licence should the company take out on this vehicle?
  • Recovery vehicle licence
  • Trade licence
  • 40 tonne goods licence
  • Special Types goods licence

7. With regard to trade plates, which of the following statements are correct?
  • Both of the plates must be clearly displayed when in use
  • The plates have red letters on a white background:
  • 784A4A52-E16A-4437-8084-311A604F28D6
  • The rear plate must be displayed but the front plate may be carried in the cab
  • The front plate is white and rear plate is yellow
  • The plates have white letters on a red background

8. A weight threshold must be exceeded before vehicle excise duty takes into account the number of axles on a rigid goods vehicle. This threshold is:
  • 15 tonnes (not 12)

9. Which of the following activities are legitimate uses of a trade licence?
  • To take a new, untaxed vehicle to be weighed
  • To test an untaxed vehicle which has been under repair
  • To authorise a specialised recovery vehicle
  • To keep an untaxed vehicle on the road

10. A transport operator applies for a trade license. His application is refused. Which of the following statements is correct?
  • He may appeal to the Secretary of State for Transport
  • Appeals must be made within a maximum of 28 days from the date of the refusal
  • He has no right of appeal
  • He may appeal to the Upper Tribunal
  • Appeals must be made within a maximum of 3 months from the date of the refusal

11. Vehicle Excise Duty for an articulated vehicle covers the:
  • Tractor unit and semi-trailer combination
  • INCORRECT: Tractor unit only
  • Semi-trailer only
  • Semi-trailers not exceeding 4,000 kg only

12. Additional trailer excise duty is payable on which of the following:
  • A flat-bed drawbar trailer plated at 12,000 kg
  • A low loader semi-trailer plated at 26,000 kg
  • A curtain-sided semi-trailer plated at 4,000 kg
  • A sided drawbar trailer plated at 4,000 kg

13. A transport company operates a fleet of new 44 tonne gvw articulated goods vehicles. Which of the following factors would be taken into account when assessing the VED payable on each vehicle?
  • Gross vehicle weight
  • Reduced pollution certificate
  • Number of axles
  • Unladen weight
  • Type of work the vehicles are used on

14. Which of the following documents are required by an operator taxing a new goods vehicle for the first time?
  • Type Approval Certificate of Conformity (COC)
  • Unladen weight certificate
  • Copy of the operator’s ‘O’ licence document
  • V5C
  • DVSA test certificate

15. Which of the following would be legitimate uses of a trade licence, used in connection with a new, untaxed goods vehicle?
1. To demonstrate the vehicle to a potential customer
2. To deliver goods to a customer following a breakdown of the original vehicle scheduled
3. To deliver the vehicle to a purchaser
4. To check the vehicle’s unladen weight

Freight Module 16 / Transport Ancillaries

1. An organisation which arranges the delivery of goods by haulier, usually on a return load basis, is known as:
  • clearing house
  • freight forwarder
  • groupage operator
  • sub-contractor

2. An organisation which, on behalf of the sender of goods, makes the necessary transport arrangements, prepares the documentation required and obtains any necessary customs clearance is:
  • A freight forwarder

3. A company which accepts small consignments from customers, consolidates them at its depot and then delivers them, is known as a:
  • Groupage operator

4. Ace Haulage has arranged to move some goods for Bloggs Limited. On the day in question Ace Haulage has no vehicles available to do the work and therefore arranges with Deuce Transport to do the job for them. Deuce Transport would there fore be :
  • A sub-contractor

5. Below are some statements relating to organisations which provide ancillary services to the transport industry. Which combinations of statements are correct?
  • Freight forwarders arrange international movements using various modes of transport.
  • An agent makes contracts with third parties on behalf of a principal
  • A clearing house provides services for the carriage of waste
  • A groupage operator collects debts on behalf of factoring organisations
  • Sub-contractors are directly responsible to the consignor for any loss or damage to goods

6. The right of lien entitles an operator to:
  • Seize and sell a customer’s goods to settle outstanding debts

7. A transport operator’s vehicles are fully committed when a customer asks for another job to be undertaken
  • The operator may sub-contract the job and need not inform the sub-contractor of the price being charged to the customer

8. Bill Bloggs appoints another person to make legally binding contracts on his behalf. In law, Bill is termed the:
  • principal

9. Identify which of the clauses below would normally be included in a standard contract of carriage used for a number of haulage customers:
  • Provisions relating to compensation for loss damage or delay
  • Details of the legal system and courts which would have jurisdiction in any case arising
  • Details of any limits of liability of the carrier
  • Details of the maximum gross weights of vehicles to be used on any movements
  • A statement that the carrier is a common carrier

10. Jackson Transport decides to appoint an agent, Mike Parsons. Which of the following statements relating to the law of agency, are correct:
  • Jackson Transport is termed the ‘principal’
  • Mike Parsons may make legally binding contracts on behalf of Jackson Transport
  • As an agent, Mike Parsons will normally be rewarded by payment of a commission on all contracts negotiated on behalf of Jacksons
  • Mike Parsons has the right to sub-delegate the work to another agent without reference to Jacksons

Freight Module 17 / Electronic Data

1. What is ‘software’ in relation to electronic data systems?
  • The programs which run on the computers

2. Transport companies must register under the Data Protection Act if they keep computer records containing:
  • personal information about employees
  • financial information about the business
  • registers of shareholders
  • INCORRECT: the names and addresses of corporate customers

3. The term given to measurement from remote sources using transmitters etc to send the information back to a base station is known as:
  • telemetry

4. The technology which enables operators to track the location of vehicles accurately is known as:
  • global positioning system

5. Modern vehicles are manufactured with their own unique onboard electronic data network which provides a sub-system to control actuators, receive data from sensors etc. This onboard network is referred to as the:
  • CANbus

6. Computer technologies which provide streams of constantly updated information are referred to as:
  • real time

7. Which of the following items of technology would enable a parcels operator to keep track of individual consignments:
  • RFIDs
  • Barcodes

8. Under the Data Protection Act 1998, organisations must register as data controllers if they wish to keep certain information and records. Registrations must be made with:
  • The Information Commissioner

Freight Module 18 / Weights and Dimensions

1. The weight of a vehicle including the body, but excluding the weight of water, tools, loose equipment and fuel, is known as:
  • Unladen weight (NOT ready to roll, totally empty, no fuel, no water, and no crew)
  • Kerbside weight (ready to roll but without the crew, at the kerbside, i.e. with fuel, water, etc. – but still no crew)

2. Under the Road Vehicle (Authorised Weight) Regulations 1998, a single, non-driving axle will have a maximum weight not exceeding:
  • 10,000 kg

3. The maximum gross weight allowed for a new four axle rigid vehicle with road friendly suspension is:
  • 32,000 kg

4. Under the Authorised Weight Regulations, the dimension governing the weight that can be imposed on 3 closely spaced axles of a semi-trailer, is the distance between the:
  • Centres of adjacent axles
  • Rearmost axle of the trailer and the front axle of the tractor unit
  • Centres of foremost and rearmost axles
  • Centres of the rearmost axle and the trailer’s landing legs

5. A load on your vehicle projects 2.5 metres to the front. What minimum action should be taken?
  • Fit side and end marker boards and carry an attendant
  • Make sure the projection is clearly marked
  • Fit an end marker board and give 2 days’ notice to the police
  • Fit side and end marker boards and give 2 days’ notice to the police

6. The maximum width of a vehicle, trailer or load operating under Special Types (STGO) Regulations is:
  • 6.1 metres

7. Under both Construction and Use and the Road Vehicles (Authorised Weight) Regulations, the maximum gross weight possible for a 2 axle drawbar trailer is:
  • 18,000 kg

8. A transport company hires a 18 tonne rigid vehicle from a truck rental company. The vehicle is loaded overnight by a customer of the transport company. The following day, on the way to the delivery point, the vehicle is checkweighed by DVSA examiners and found to be significantly over loaded. Which of the following might be prosecuted in connection with the overloading of the vehicle?
  • The transport company
  • The driver
  • The truck rental company
  • The person who loaded the vehicle

9. A load projects uniformly beyond both sides of a normal vehicle. The overall width of the load is 3 metres. Which of the following actions should the operator take?
  • Give 2 days’ notice of the movement to the police
  • Ensure that marker boards are fitted to both sides of the load
  • Give 5 days’ notice of the movement to the Highways and Bridges Authorities
  • Provide a statutory attendant to accompany the driver

10. The maximum length allowed for a rigid-drawbar trailer combination is:
  • 18.75 metres

11. In Belgium, the height limit for goods vehicles is:
  • 4 meters

12. With which of the following must an operator comply when planning the movement of a load having a rearward projection of 2.5 metres, which will be carried on a vehicle complying in all other ways with Construction and Use Regulations:
  • Fit an end marker board only
  • INCORRECT: Give 2 days notice to relevant police forces
  • Supply an attendant
  • Fit side market boards

13. A goods vehicle has a gross weight of 7500 kg and an unladen weight of 3000 kg. The total weight of the vehicle crew is 150 kg and fuel, tools etc weigh a total of 500 kg. The kerbside weight is:
  • 3500 kg (Kerbside weight = Unladen weight + Water + Fuel + Tools [but still not crew])

14. The standard maximum permitted width of a refrigerated vehicle in the EU is:
  • 2.6 metres

Freight Module 19 / Safe Loading

1. Completed Animal Transport Certificate must be kept by the transport operator for a minimum period of:
  • 6 months (logs relating to international movement of livestock – 3 years)

2. A Vocational Training Certificate entitling a driver to transport loads of dangerous goods must be renewed at intervals not exceeding a maximum of:
  • 5 years

3. A rigid goods vehicle with a GVW of 18,000 kg is carrying a consignment of 10,000 kg of packaged dangerous goods which have been allocated to Transport Category 2. The vehicle is equipped with one 2 kg dry powder fire extinguisher to deal with a cab fire. In addition, the vehicle must carry how much more extinguisher capacity to meet minimum legal requirements?
  • 10 kg

4. The prescribed hazard warning sign used to indicate a flammable liquid is diamond shaped, with a:
  • Black or white flame symbol on a red background:
  • 8847FC51-C955-47AE-A345-7EF5B9CEA917

5. Vehicles carrying quick-frozen foods must be fitted with equipment to record the air temperature in the load compartment. Operators must keep these records in good condition for at least:
  • 12 months

6. Which of the following vehicle markings must be displayed by a 38,000 kg gvw road tanker carrying a load of petrol for delivery to a filling station 50 miles away:
  • Plain orange panel on the front
  • INCORRECT: Plain orange panel on the rear (this is not a must)
  • A 5 part ‘Hazchem’ warning panel on the front
  • An orange panel on the front showing the Emergency Action Code and UN number

7. Under dangerous goods legislation, a road tanker carrying more than one dangerous substance must display:
  • a substance identification number on each compartment
  • a list of the different substances carried
  • a plate containing the word ‘multi-load’ on the rear of the vehicle
  • three orange reflective plates

8. A carrier registers for the carriage of controlled waste. The registration will be valid for a maximum of:
  • 3 years

9. To comply with the carriage of packaged dangerous goods subject to the ADR Agreement, a transport document must be carried on the vehicle to accompany the load. This document must contain which of the following information?
  • The name of the substance as listed in ADR
  • The number of packages
  • The UN number of the substance
  • INCORRECT: The Emergency Action Code

10. If an application to be an approved carrier of controlled wast is rejected, to whom may the applicant appeal?
  • The Secretary of State for Environment
  • The Environment Agency
  • The Upper Tribunal
  • The Waste Regulation Authority

11. When considering the movement of a controlled waste, who is legally responsible for creating the Waste Transfer Note and how long must a copy of it be retained?
  • The producer of the waste and a copy must be retained for two years

12. Under the transit of animals legislation, which of the following conditions must be met to enable a consignment of pigs to be transported for up to 24 hours
  • The pigs are offered water at regular intervals during the journey

13. Copies of journey logs relating to the international movement of livestock must be kept by the operator for at least:
  • 3 years (Animal Transport Certificates – for 6 months)

14. Which of the following statements relating to Dangerous Goods Safety Advisers (DGSAs) are correct?
  • All transport organisation handling or transporting dangerous goods must appoint a DGSA.
  • To become qualified, DGSAs must pass examinations set by the Scottish Qualifications Authority on behalf of the DfT
  • DGSAs must prepare a report for the transport organisation each year
  • DGSAs must renew their qualifications at intervals of no more than 3 years

15. A 44 tonne GVW is scheduled to carry a full load of a single corrosive substance from Runcorn in the UK to Ghent in Belgium, crossing the Channel using the Dover-Calais ferry. With regard to vehicle marking, which requirements will have to be met for each leg of the journey (Runcorn to Dover, Dover to Calais and Calais to Ghent)?
1. UK tanker marking requirements must be met for all three legs of the journey
2. UK tanker marking requirements must be met for the journey from Runcorn to Dover only
3. ADR tanker marking requirements must be met for all road journey legs, in both the UK and abroad
4. IMDG tanker marking requirements must be met for the ferry crossing
5. ADR tanker marking requirements must be met for the road journey between Calais and Ghent only
6. IMDG tanker marking requirements must be met for the whole journey, both road and sea legs

16. Which of the following statements relating to the UK carriage of foodstuffs for human consumption are correct?
1. Chilled goods must be carried at a maximum of + 8°C
2. Quick frozen goods must be carried at a maximum of – 8°C
3. Tankers must be marked ‘For Foodstuffs Only’ (missed this one)
4. Records from temperature recording equipment must be kept for at least 15 months

17. An operator is planning a journey carrying perishable foodstuffs in a refrigerated vehicle from Newcastle upon Tyne to Lisbon in Portugal, using the Plymouth to Santander ferry crossing. Which parts of the journey will be subject to the ATP Agreement?
1. INCORRECT: The UK road journey from Newcastle to Plymouth (550km) [has to be an international leg of a journey]
2. The ferry journey from Plymouth to Santander (800km) (I think ferry crossing has to be less than 150 km to be part of ATP)
3. The Spanish road journey from Santander to the Portuguese border (500km)
4. The Portuguese road journey from the Spanish border to Lisbon (200km)

18. Which yellow line markings would indicate to drivers a total prohibition on loading and unloading in that area?
A. Single line in the gutter parallel to the kerb
B. Single line on the kerb at right angles to the carriageway
C. Double line on the kerb at right angles to the carriageway
D. INCORRECT: Double line in the gutter parallel to the kerb (This one prohibits parking)

19. Which of the following countries impose blanket prohibitions on the movement of large goods vehicles for periods of time over weekends and public holidays?
1. Germany
2. Spain
3. Netherlands
4. Belgium
5. Italy

Freight Module 20 / Mechanical Conditions – Plating & Testing

1. The maximum validity for a temporary exemption certificate (VTG33) exempting a vehicle from a DfT test is
  • 3 months

2. Which of the following vehicles will be subject to Plating and Testing regulations?
  • A rigid goods vehicle of 3,750 kg GVW
  • A rigid goods vehicle of 3500 kg GVW
  • A breakdown vehicle of 5,000 kg GVW
  • A local authority snow plough of 7,500 kg GVW

3. If an operator alters the chassis of his goods vehicle, who should he inform?
  • Goods Vehicle Centre, Swansea
  • INCORRECT: Driver and Vehicle Licensing Centre, Swansea

4. A vehicle which has failed its annual DVSA test will be subject to a full (rather than partial) re-examination if it is not re-submitted within a maximum of:
  • 14 days

5. Which of the following items of information must be shown on the manufacturer’s plate fitted to a goods carrying trailer?
  • Maximum gross weight for the trailer
  • Vehicle registration number
  • Year of original registration
  • Place of manufacture of the trailer

6. For a new, ECWVTA type approved semi-trailer, which of the following statements is correct?
  • The trailer identification number is issued by DVSA to the supplier of the trailer prior to the sale of the trailer to a customer
  • The VTG6 and VTG7 are issued to the operator following the first annual test of the trailer by DVSA
  • The VTG5A and VTG5B are issued by the supplier of the trailer prior to the sale of the trailer to a customer
  • The operator must submit the trailer to DVSA for its first test prior to putting it into service

7. Since the advent of Type Approval, vehicles subject to plating and testing are issued with their Department for Transport plate when:
  • first registered
  • INCORRECT: manufactured (manufacturer’s plate is issued when manufactured)
  • first tested
  • specified on an ‘O’ licence

8. Which of the following vehicles/trailers are subject to Plating and Testing regulations? (all of them)
  • A drawbar trailer with an unladen weight of 2 tonnes
  • A rigid vehicle with a gross weight of 7.49 tonnes
  • A semi-trailer with an unladen weight of 2 tonnes
  • A tractor unit from an articulated combination with a gross weight of 24 tonnes

9. In which of the following circumstances can a DVSA testing station refuse to conduct a test?
  • The vehicle is producing large quantities of smoke
  • The vehicle arrives late
  • The vehicle is in a dirty or dangerous condition
  • INCORRECT: The driver fails to produce the vehicle’s insurance certificate

10. The legal weight threshold above which Plating and Testing regulations apply is:
  • 1020 kg ULW for trailers
  • 2540 kg GVW for vehicles
  • 3000 kg GVW for vehicles
  • 1525 kg ULW for trailers

11. An operator has agreed to carry a long load for a customer which will project beyond the rear of the vehicle. Under Construction and Use Regulations, what is the maximum projection possible before the operator needs to fit a rear marker board to the load?
A. INCORRECT: 1 metre
B. 2 metres
C. 3.05 metres
D. 4.50 metres

Freight Module 21 / Mechanical Conditions – Fleet Inspection and Enforcement

1. A prohibition notice (PG9) can come into force immediately or be delayed for a maximum period of
  • 10 days

2. A police constable, accompanied by a goods vehicle examiner, stops your vehicle. The goods vehicle examiner hands you a PG3. This means that you must:
  • proceed to a specified place for further inspection
  • remove excess weight from your vehicle before proceeding
  • present your vehicle at a test station within the next 10 days to have the prohibition removed
  • not use the vehicle again until the defect has been remedied

3. An immediate prohibition can be delayed by issuing a
  • PG9A

4. The form issued to remove a prohibition notice is a:
  • PG10

5. Goods vehicle examiners are entitled to carry out inspections on vehicles:
  • at a goods vehicle operator’s premises or at the roadside

6. Most vehicles receiving an immediate PG9 will also receive a PG9B. This has the effect of:
  • allowing the prohibited vehicle to move subject to certain conditions

7. Whilst a delayed prohibition notice (PG9) is in force, the copy handed to the driver must be:
  • carried on the vehicle at all times
  • retained by the employer until the vehicle is submitted for re-examination
  • retained by the driver to whom it was issued whether or not he continues to drive the vehicle in question
  • kept securely at the operating centre until the vehicle is submitted for re-examination

8. One of your vehicles receives a prohibition notice, and the defect is remedied in your workshop. Before taking the vehicle to the test station, your workshop staff wish to test it on the road. Within what radius of the place of repair may the test take place?
  • 3 miles

9. Your vehicle has had a PG9 imposed upon it. After repair, an examiner re-examines the vehicle and issues a PG9C. This means:
  • the vehicle is still not roadworthy

10. An operator believes that a DVSA examiner was wrong in refusing to remove a prohibition notice following a re-examination of the vehicle. What actions are open to the operator?
  • He may appeal to the Goods Vehicle Centre, Swansea

11. A vehicle which has failed its annual test may be re-submitted to the same test station. Normally only the defective items will be re-examined, provided the vehicle is re-tested within a maximum period of
A. 5 days
B. 7 days
C. 10 days
D. 14 days

12. A driver is examining her vehicle’s tyres as part of her daily walkround checks. Which tyre conditions from the following list would render a tyre intended for use on a vehicle of 18,000kg GVW illegal for use on the road?
1. Tread depth of 1.3mm across the full breadth of the tyre
2. Incorrectly inflated
3. A cut of 15mm which represents 8% of the tyre width
4. A bulge caused by separation of the tyre structure
5. A part of a tyre cord being exposed

13. The Code of Practice on the Safe Loading of Vehicles states that to prevent movement of the payload in a sideways direction, a load restraint device should be capable of withstanding a force equal to
  • 25% of the total weight of the load
  • 100% of the total weight of the load
  • 50% of the total weight of the load
  • 70% of the total weight of the load

Freight Module 22 / Driver Licensing

1. What is the minimum category of entitlement permitting a driver to drive a rigid goods vehicle/drawbar trailer combination with a MAM of 12000 kg?
  • Category C1+E (12,000 kg by definition)
  • INCORRECT: Category C+E

2. What is the minimum category of entitlement permitting a driver to drive a rigid goods vehicle with a MAM of 7500 kg towing a trailer with a MAM of 750 kg?
  • Category C1+E

3. Neil Smith passed his lgv test in an articulated vehicle. He now holds a licence showing full entitlement to drive category C+E vehicles. Which vehicles, from the list below, is he entitled to drive? (all of them)
  • Articulated vehicles
  • Rigid vehicles
  • Rigid vehicles with drawbar trailers

4. A driver from Poland holds a Polish LGV entitlement. He moves to the UK on a permanent basis and wishes to continue to drive LGVs in this country. He must register that he has become resident in the UK with the DVLA. This must be done within a time limit of:
  • 12 months of becoming resident

5. LGV entitlement must be renewed annually from the age of:
  • 65

6. Which of the following has the power to revoke a driver’s LGV entitlement on the grounds of physical disability:
  • The DVLA

7. Eric Smith has had his LGV entitlement revoked on the grounds of misconduct. Should he wish to challenge this decision, he should make his appeal to:
  • A Magistrates’ Court
  • INCORRECT: The Court of Appeals
  • The Transport Tribunal
  • A County Court

8. A “Category Restriction 107” endorsement on a license limits drivers to rigid vehicle/drawbar trailer combinations not exceeding:
  • 8250 kg MAM

9. Peter Smith has an LGV licence with entitlement for category C only. Smith’s employer, Bloggs, has a contract with Jones Ltd. which involves loads being moved on rigid vehicle/drawbar combinations at a plated weight of 40,000 kg. Whilst driving one of these drawbar combinations, Smith is stopped in a roadside check and his licence is checked by enforcement officials. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the situation?
  • Both Smith and Bloggs may be liable to prosecution
  • No action is necessary as Smith has the correct LGV entitlement for the vehicle being driven
  • Smith alone may be liable for driving a vehicle without the appropriate LGV entitlement
  • Bloggs alone may be liable for permitting his driver to be driving without the appropriate LGV entitlement

10. Which person or organisation can monitor the conduct of vocational licence holders and initiate action leading to the withdrawal of the vocational entitlement on disciplinary grounds?
  • Traffic Commissioner
  • Secretary of State for Transport
  • DVLA, Swansea
  • Driver and Vehicle Standards Agency

11. What minimum category of licence entitlement must the driver of a rigid goods vehicle of 3.6 tonnes MAM have?
  • C1

12. A “vocational” entitlement to drive is required once a vehicle has a maximum authorised mass (MAM) exceeding which of the following thresholds?
  • 3500 kg

13. The licence of a driver shows entitlements for Categories B and C1. Which of the following vehicles is this person legally entitled to drive?
  • A rigid goods vehicle of 7500 kg MAM towing a trailer of 750 kg MAM
  • A rigid goods vehicle of 18000 kg MAM
  • A rigid goods vehicle of 5000 kg MAM towing a trailer of 3500 kg MAM
  • An articulated vehicle of 12000 kg MAM

14. What sequence of testing would a person who is not licensed to drive any type of vehicle have to undergo to obtain authorisation to drive articulated goods vehicles?
  • Category B, then Category C, then Category C+E

Freight Module 23 / Traffic & Speed

1. In France, Germany and Italy the maximum permitted speed for lgvs in a built up area is:
  • 50 kmh

2. Under the rules relating to parking, waiting restrictions, etc in the UK, a double continuous yellow line parallel to the kerb indicates:
  • No waiting at all

3. On a dual carriageway (non-motorway) road in the UK, the maximum speed allowed for a 2 axle rigid vehicle with a permissible maximum weight of 18 tonnes is:
  • 60 mph

4. The Low Emission Zone in London applies to all goods vehicles exceeding a gross weight threshold of:
  • 3.5 tonnes
  • 7.5 tonnes

5. Which of the following statements, relating to the law on parking a goods vehicle on the road at night without lights, are correct
  • The vehicle must be on a road with a speed limit of 30 mph or less
  • The vehicle must have a gross weight below 2,500 kg
  • The vehicle must be parked on the nearside of the road (except on one way streets)
  • The vehicle must not be more than 10 metres in length
  • The vehicle can be parked within 10 metres of a road junction

6. The weight threshold which triggers weekend movement restrictions in many European countries is:
  • 7.5 tonnes GVW (not 3.5 tonnes GVW)

7. Where no lower speed limits apply to either road or vehicle, the maximum speed allowed on a single carriageway road in the UK is:
  • 60 mph (not 70 mph)

8. On a single carriageway in the UK, the maximum speed allowed for a 40 tonne articulated vehicle is:
  • 50 mph

9. Which of the following countries requires drivers to carry an authenticated copy of any current prescription:
  • France (no other country apparently)

10. Under the yellow line rules contained in the Traffic Signs Regulations and General Directions 2002, a single yellow “pip” on the edge of the kerb at right angles to the carriageway indicates:
  • No loading or unloading during specified hours

11. From the table of maximum national UK speed limits below, identify which combination of lines is correct:

Single Carriageways, mph
Dual Carriageways, mph
Motorways, mph
Cars, motorcycles, car-derived vans and dual-purpose vehicles. Deduct 10 if towing caravans or trailers.
Goods vehicles. 7.5 tonnes and lower MLW. Not artics, not towing trailers.
Goods vehicles. More than 7.5 tonnes MLW in England and Wales. Also included 7.5 tonnes and lower MLW artics and towing a trailer.

12. Which of the following goods vehicles would be allowed to travel at a maximum of 60 mph on an otherwise unrestricted UK dual carriageway?
CORRECT (all of them):
  • A rigid vehicle of 7.5 tonnes maximum laden weight
  • A rigid vehicle of 18 tonnes maximum laden weight
  • A rigid vehicle and trailer with a combined maximum laden weight of 7.5 tonnes
  • An articulated vehicle with a maximum laden weight of 40 tonnes
  • A rigid vehicle of 8 tonnes maximum laden weight

Freight Module 24 / Accident Procedure

1. In the UK, under the Road Traffic Act, an accident is said to have occurred if a motorist collides with and injures a
INCORRECT: cat, chicken, llama

2. In the UK a driver hits a flashing beacon adjacent to a pedestrian crossing. He must report this to:
  • the police as soon as possible and in any case within 24 hours

3. A driver is involved in a accident in the UK in which a pedestrian is injured. A police constable asks the driver for her certificate of insurance but she does not have it on her. She must produce the certificate at a police station within:
  • 7 days

4. A vehicle collides with a parked car on a public road in the UK. Providing that there is no personal injury, the driver should:
  • report it to the police as soon as possible and within 24 hours if unable to contact the vehicle owner at the time
  • INCORRECT: leave a note for the vehicle owner, in which case the police do not need to be informed
  • report it to the police as soon as possible and within 24 hours even if the owner of the vehicle was informed at the time
  • report it to his/her insurance company leaving it to them to make contact with the owner of the vehicle

5. A driver injures his head in an accident whilst driving his vehicle. No-one else is injured and there is no damage to any other vehicle or property. Under UK law, the driver:
  • is not required to report the accident to the police

6. Under the Road Traffic Act 1988, which of the following occurrences would require the driver of a goods vehicle to stop at the scene of an accident on a public road?
  • The driver’s vehicle collides with a parked car, causing damage but no injuries
  • The driver runs over an injures a cat belonging to a person living alongside the road
  • The driver brakes hard and some of the sheep being carried on the vehicle are injured
  • The vehicle hits a kerb, the driver’s arm is injured but no other damage of injury is caused

7. An employee is driving her employer’s rigid goods vehicle and is involved in an accident in the UK. Which of the following statements describes the employer’s legal liabilities?
  • The employer has a legal liability to identify the driver to the police if requested

8. A major accident occurs on a UK motorway involving a number of vehicles and personal injury to a number of people. In such circumstances, which of the following pieces of information must the driver of a 44 tonne articulated goods vehicle who was involved in the accident produce (if requested)?
  • His name and address
  • The vehicle owner’s name and address
  • The certificate of insurance for his vehicle
  • His driving license details
  • His load details

9. In the event of a collision involving a UK vehicle on an international journey, which of the following items of information must always be recorded on a European Accident Statement?
  • Location and time of the accident
  • Drivers’ details
  • Insurance details
  • Identity of the party responsible for causing the accident

10. At the scene, following a minor accident in the UK, what must you give (if asked) to the driver of the other vehicle involved?
  • Your name and address
  • The name of your insurance company
  • Your insurance certificate
  • Your driving licence

11. The Road Traffic Act 1988 requires drivers involved in accidents to provide certain items of information at the scene. In the case of a minor accident where no personal injury is involved, which of the following must be produced at the scene in order to preclude the need for any reporting to the police?
1. The driver’s name and address
2. INCORRECT: The driver’s licence
3. INCORRECT: The certificate of insurance
4. The vehicle owner’s name and address
5. The registration number of the vehicle

25. Freight Module 25 / Insurance

1. One of the vehicles belonging to a road transport operator is involved in a road traffic accident which results in a pedestrian being taken to hospital for emergency medical treatment. In these circumstances, the legal obligation of the transport operator in respect of emergency hospital treatment is covered by:
  • third party motor insurance
  • employer’s liability insurance
  • consequential liability insurance
  • public liability insurance

2. Your company wishes to take out insurance against loss of money caused by dishonesty of employees. The type of insurance required is:
  • fidelity guarantee

3. Which of the following types of insurance are compulsory for a road haulage company which operates 20 of its own vehicles and employs 30 drivers and 8 administrative and sales staff?
  • third party motor insurance
  • employer’s liability insurance
  • INCORRECT: goods in transit insurance
  • public liability insurance
  • consequential loss insurance

4. On your company’s goods in transit insurance, your insurance company has added an immobiliser clause. This means that:
  • the vehicle must be fitted with an approved anti-theft device

5. Which of the following documents may be produced to the police to prove that a current, valid vehicle insurance is in existence?
  • Certificate of insurance
  • Cover note

6. An operator wishes to insure herself against loss of profit resulting from a major incident, such as a fire, which would keep her vehicles off the road. Which of the following types of insurance should she take out?
  • consequential loss

7. The failure of a driver to report an accident to the insurers could result in the motor insurance policy being:
  • invalidated

8. An insurance policy contains an “excess clause”. This means that:
  • the operator must pay the first part of any claim

9. A carrier is liable for the loss of a load weighing 2500 kg. What is his normal limit of liability in sterling under the CMR Convention? (Assume 1SDR=£0.80)
  • 2500 * 8.33 * 0.80 = £16,660

10. An unaccompanied semi-trailer arrives in Felixstowe carrying a consignment of Dutch goods for delivery to a customer in Birmingham. A UK-based haulier agrees to collect the trailer and deliver the consignment but, due to unexpectedly heavy work commitments, delays the delivery by two weeks. Under the terms of the CMR Convention the maximum amount that may be claimed by the customer for losses incurred by the delay is:
  • The carriage charges

11. You company wishes to insure against the possibility of causing death or injury to persons due to defective loading of company vehicles. The type of insurance needed is:
  • public liability

12. As a safeguard against possible claims for compensation from an employee, due to injuries received during employment, an operator will require which one of the following insurances?
  • Employer’s Liability
  • INCORRECT: Workman’s Compensation
  • General Accident
  • Public liability

13. A haulier delivers a consignment to a customer under the terms of the CMR Convention. No damage is noted at the time of delivery but is discovered subsequently by the customer when unpacking the goods. Which of the following correctly describes the correct position under CMR rules?
  • The customer must make a claim in writing within 7 days of delivery

14. Third party insurance policies must include cover for which of the following liabilities?
  • Passengers

15. A UK operator is engaged on a hire and reward journey from the UK to Germany, carrying a full load (25 tonnes) of electrical products with a total value of £200,000. On unloading at the delivery point, the consignee discovers damage to half of the consignment and endorses the load documentation accordingly. Under the CMR Convention, what is the maximum amount which the haulier might have to pay in compensation for the damage? Assume the value of one SDR is £1.00.
A. £208,250
B. £200,000
C. £104,125 (This is what you’ll get if you calculate with SDR: 12,500 kg * 8.33 SDR * £1)
D. £100,000 (This is the correct answer because the liability cannot exceed the value of the damaged load, 50% in this case)

Freight Module 26 / Vehicle Selection

1. An operator has to move loads of non-stackable pallets, each weighing one tonne and having dimensions of 1200mm X 1000mm. If a load of 26 pallets had to be moved as a single consignment, which of the following vehicles would be most suited to the work?
  • 6 axled articulated vehicle at 44 tonnes GVW

2. The green plate as shown below denotes the the vehicle meets:
  • G – German low noise standards
  • L – Austrian low noise standards
  • 6ACE91F7-E4C1-45BD-B9DD-CDCFE59BB79E8E3217EA-35D9-407F-ADD7-A3F863640C4D

3. When drawing up the specification for the future purchase of a new 44 tonne GVW vehicle, which of the following features would assist in improving likely fuel economy?
  • Air management system
  • Aluminium wheels
  • Euro 6 engine
  • Additional axels

4. Which of the following items will reduce emissions if incorporated into the specification for a new goods vehicle?
CORRECT: (all of them)
  • Hybrid engine
  • Gas powered engine (this is natural gas, not American gasoline)
  • Stop – start engine technology
  • Diesel particulate filter

Freight Module 27 / Permits

1. A UK based road haulage operator wishes to undertake an international journey delivering goods to Ukraine. What documents would be required to specifically authorise the Ukraine leg of this journey and from which organisations can it be obtained?
  • A bilateral permit obtainable from IRFO
  • An own account document obtainable from the FTA
  • A Community Authorisation obtainable from the DVSA Central Licensing Office
  • A cabotage permit obtainable from IRFO

2. Which of the following journeys would be classed as cabotage for a UK based operator?
CORRECT (Cabotage is not international, it’s within another country – collection & delivery):
  • Paris to Marseilles
  • Berlin to Hamburg
  • Amsterdam to Brussels
  • Madrid to Lisbon
  • Milan to Vienna

3. Journeys to which countries require possession of a bilateral permit?
  • Ukraine
  • Bulgaria
  • Poland
  • Romania

4. What is the purpose of the green sign below when displayed on a goods vehicle?
  • It indicates a lower emission/enhanced safety vehicle under ECMT
  • 6F0A2D9B-FD58-48D7-BC26-5540E790E9C7(green, maybe without the truck on it, just the VI letters)

5. Which of the following journeys would be examples of third country traffic for an operator from the UK?
  • Deliver Turin reload for Lyons
  • Deliver Seville reload for Madrid
  • Deliver Munich reload for Stuttgart
  • Deliver Naples reload for Milan

6. Completed permits must be returned to IRFO within a maximum period of:
  • 15 days

7. Which document is issued automatically to Standard International ‘O’ license holders to permit operations within the EU?
  • Community Licence

8. Community Licences are valid for a maximum period of:
  • 5 years
  • INCORRECT: Indefinitely, as long as the O licence is valid

Freight Module 28 / Customs Transit Systems

1. A UK operator is asked to carry a load with T2 status on an international journey. What does T2 status mean?
  • The goods are in free circulation

2. On a movement from the UK to Italy via Switzerland which paper document would need to be carried on the vehicle to meet CT requirements?
  • Transit Accompanying Document
  • TIR carnet
  • Customs guarantee
  • EUR1

3. CT guarantees remain live for a period of:
  • 1 year

4. Under TIR, vehicles and trailers must be in possession of a current, valid GV60 certificate. For how long is a GV60 valid?
  • 2 years

5. What is the purpose of an ATA carnet?
  • To allow the temporary importation of goods without payment of duty

6. An operator undertakes a delivery from the UK to the Ukraine. Under what international customs transit system would the goods be moved?
  • TIR

Freight Module 29 / Frontier Crossings

1. Which Incoterm places almost all responsibility on the buyer; the seller only having to pack and make the goods available, at their premises, to the buyer?
  • EXW

2. What is the purpose of the Schengen Agreement?
  • To allow travellers to cross internal EU borders without passport checks

3. For which of the following countries would a UK driver require an entry visa?
  • Russia

4. An international driving permit can be obtained from which of the following organisations?
  • AA
  • DVLA
  • IRFO
  • Chamber of Commerce

Freight Module 30 / International Transport Documentation

1. Certificates of origin are issued in the UK by:
  • Chambers of Commerce

2. Which country requires a UK driver to be in possession of an International Driving Permit?
  • Ukraine

3. A new UK vehicle is on a journey from Birmingham to Lyons. Which of the following documents relating to the DRIVER must be carried?
  • UK driving license
  • Passport
  • Letter from the employer authorising the holder to drive the vehicle
  • Driver’s digital tachograph card
  • International Driving Permit

4. A UK vehicle is on a journey from Birmingham to Milan carrying a consignment of perishable foodstuffs. Which of the following documents relating to the VEHICLE must be carried?
  • Certified copy of Community Licence
  • ATP certificate
  • Vehicle registration document
  • ADR certificate
  • TIR Approval Certificate (GV60)

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French Olive Oil

The South of France is known more for its wine and beaches, but this region also produces over 70% of French olive oil. The artist Vincent Van Gogh immortalized the olive harvest during his time in Provence with a series of paintings done around 1889. French olive oil is typically produced with native varieties like Aglandau, Bouteillan and Picholine, as well as many other local cultivars.

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publisher: Common Crawl
description: Wide crawl of the web for October 2020
operator: Common Crawl Admin (info@commoncrawl.org)
hostname: ip-10-67-67-128.ec2.internal
software: Apache Nutch 1.17 (modified, https://github.com/commoncrawl/nutch/)
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Ukrainian weightlifter stripped of 2012 Olympic bronze medal

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LONDON (AP) — A Ukrainian weightlifter was stripped of her bronze medal from the 2012 London Olympics on Wednesday, the first athlete formally disqualified by the IOC after the retesting of doping samples from the past two Summer Games.

Yulia Kalina, who finished third in the 58-kilogram division in London, tested positive for the steroid turinabol in reanalysis of her stored samples and was retroactively disqualified from the games, the International Olympic Committee said.

A three-man disciplinary panel stripped her of the medal and ordered her to return it.

The IOC asked the international weightlifting federation to revise the results and consider any further sanctions against Kalina, who could face a two-year ban.

The IOC recorded 55 positive results — 32 from Beijing and 23 from London — in the retesting program, which used enhanced techniques to catch cheats who escaped detection at the time. The Russian Olympic Committee has said 22 of the cases involved Russian athletes, including medalists.

The IOC stores Olympic doping samples for 10 years, allowing them to be reopened and reanalyzed when improved testing methods become available.

The latest retesting program targeted athletes who were in contention to compete at the upcoming Olympics in Rio de Janeiro, but has also been widened to cover many medalists.

IOC President Thomas Bach said Wednesday that further disqualifications will be announced once disciplinary procedures are completed, including hearings and testing of “B” samples.

“The majority of the cases have been dealt with on the IOC level and have been forwarded to the international federations,” Bach said in a telephone interview with The Associated Press and two other international news agencies. “The disciplinary commissions are working hard. We will know pretty soon.”

“If there are no surprises to the test results and the legal procedures, you can be sure wherever an infringement is proven there will be a sanction,” he said.

The International Weightlifting Federation reported last month that its sport had produced 20 positive cases. Four Olympic gold medalists from Kazakhstan and medalists from Russia, Ukraine, Azerbaijan and Belarus have already been provisionally suspended by the IWF.

Entire teams from Russia, Kazakhstan, Belarus and Azerbaijan could be barred from the Rio Olympics because three or more positive cases from each country were discovered during the retests. Each national federation faces a possible one-year ban.

MORE: Thomas Bach cites ‘right to individual justice’ in Russian doping


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Quick and Easy Pumpkin Bread

| | , ,

When the weather turns just a tad cool, it seems like everything turns pumpkin flavored! I am talking all things Pumpkin Spice, Pumpkin scones, Pumpkin cookies, donuts and bread. You may think based on my “calling out” of all the crazy pumpkin love that I am opposed to the pumpkin rage, but I love it (except pumpkin spice lattes). I know I may be the only one that doesn’t love that drink, and I have tried to love it, but……..No!

Quick and Easy Pumpkin Bread is one of my favorite Fall recipes. It is a moist and tender quick bread, packed with pumpkin and cinnamon flavors.

I love all things bread. So throw a banana, a pumpkin or a cranberry my way come Fall and you will likely get it back in the form of a warm loaf of bread, begging to be slathered in butter or cream cheese. In my family there is always a debate about whether I need to make this Quick and Easy Pumpkin Bread with or without nuts. I like it both ways, so I make it based on who will most likely be home to eat it and how they’d prefer it.

I don’t know why cool weather makes me want to bake and bake and bake! I am a collector of cookbooks, of all kinds and from these I have gathered a few outstanding recipes I make every year and I can be sure will always turn out well. This Quick and Easy Pumpkin Bread always has people clamoring for more!

This Quick and Easy Pumpkin Bread recipe has a deep and wonderful flavor with a moist texture. It will become your favorite from the first bite!!

Every year I tell myself I am going to bake extra loaves of this Quick and Easy Pumpkin Bread and freeze it so we can enjoy it on a whim during the warmer months, without having to turn on the oven. However, I have never been able to make enough to have extra for freezing. This gets eaten almost as fast as I can make it.

There is nothing complicated about making Quick and Easy Pumpkin Bread, but you want to make sure you are using 100% pure pumpkin and not pumpkin pie filling. The canned, pure pumpkin is just that, only pureed pumpkin. The pumpkin pie filling on the other hand is usually sweetened and has spices already added to it, so you don’t get to control much of the flavor or your baked item.

This Quick and Easy Pumpkin Bread is considered a “quick bread.” It is called a quick bread bread because it uses baking soda and baking powder instead of yeast. There is no kneading required and in fact you can make the whole thing by hand, no need to even break out your mixers if you don’t want to.

You will first want to preheat your oven to 325 degrees. Spray your loaf pan with cooking spray or butter to prevent sticking. I use a nonstick bread pan and I still spray the loaf pan. This allows me to remove my pumpkin loaf without any sticking at all.

Then you will want to combine the butter, canned pureed pumpkin, eggs, sour cream and the vanilla extract. Once you mix these and get them incorporated, you will want to add the flour, baking soda, baking powder, salt and pumpkin spice mixture. Again, mix to combine well and then pour into your greased loaf pan and smooth out the top.

Place this in the oven for 60 minutes. I insert a toothpick in the middle to test for doneness. If the toothpick comes out with what looks like wet batter on it, the bread needs to cook a little longer.

Quick and Easy Pumpkin Bread

Quick and Easy Pumpkin Bread is a moist and tender quick bread, packed with pumpkin and cinnamon flavors.
Prep Time 15 mins
Cook Time 1 hr
Total Time 1 hr 15 mins
Course Breakfast, Dessert, Snack
Cuisine American
Servings 6 people

  • 1-1/2 cups granulated sugar
  • 8 ounces canned, pureed, pumpkin
  • 1/2 cup melted butter
  • 2 large eggs
  • 1/3 cup sour cream
  • 1 tsp vanilla extract
  • 2 cups all purpose flour
  • 1 tsp baking soda
  • 1/2 tsp baking powder
  • 1/4 cup water
  • 1/2 tsp salt
  • 1 Tablespoon pumpkin pie spice

  • Preheat oven to 325 degrees. Grease a loaf pan to prevent sticking.
  • Combine all wet ingredients in a bowl and mix well. Add all dry ingredients to the wet ingredients and mix again until ingredients are well incorporated.
  • Pour batter into a prepared bread pan. Smooth top and place into preheated oven to bake for 60 minutes or until inserted toothpick comes out clean.
  • When pumpkin bread is done baking, remove from oven, let sit for 5-10 minutes to cool and then invert pan onto a wire rack for further cooling before slicing.
  • You can keep this in a zip lock bag on the counter for several days or place in fridge for week.
Keyword Holiday Baking, Quick and Easy Pumpkin Bread

I like to eat this warm Quick and Easy Pumpkin Bread with lots of butter slathered on it or even softened cream cheese. If you want to make enough to freeze, it lasts for several months in the freezer if you wrap it well. I hope you make this and enjoy it as much as we do. It really is amazingly delicious! Enjoy friends!!

This Quick and Easy Pumpkin Bread is a family favorite. What is your favorite way to eat pumpkin?

Sweet and Spicy Maple Nuts

Low Carb Egg Bites

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Instagram Spot Schloss Lichtenstein » Travel Reports

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Lichtenstein Castle – Fairytale Castle in the Swabian Alb (Germany)

Categories: Travel reports, Europe, Germany

The fairytale castle Lichtenstein has been on our bucket list for a long time, after we had seen so many beautiful photos of it on Instagram and on the internet. Since there is still relatively little going on at the German tourist hotspots due to the Corona pandemic, we took the opportunity in July and paid a visit to the castle. Lichtenstein Castle is located in the Swabian Alb in Baden-Württemberg and can be reached from the nearest largest town …

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